Baptism and Regeneration

Dr. Couch, is the baptism of the Holy Spirit and regeneration the same?

ANSWER: No, but they both happen instantly upon salvation. Baptism of the Spirit has to do only with the church and not with Israel. The OT saints are not said to be baptism into Christ or His body. This does a cleansing work (baptism) on the believer and imparts the gifts of the Spirit. The key passage is 1 Cor. 12:12-27, and on.

Note some of the phrases: "One body, many members," "God has composed the body." "Should be no division in the body." "You are Christ's body and individual members of it." "God has appointed in the church ..."

Regeneration is mainly found in Titus 3:5. Spirit baptism and regeneration are two different works. From the Greek: "He has saved us according to His mercy by the washing of the 'again birth,' the "rebirth." The word "generation" is in the word "again-birth [genesia]" and the other word is "again making," renewing, or "remaking" done by the Holy Spirit. The Greek word here is "the up-newing". The word "new" is in this second word.

From genesia we get the English word "to generate."

When the rapture takes place only those "in Christ" are taken up, not the OT saints. In 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 we have actually two doctrines mentioned. (1) the fact that when Christ comes He has with Him the souls and spirits of "those who have fallen asleep 'in Jesus'" (v. 14), the church saints. And they receive their new bodies to return with Him back to glory. And when the rapture trumpet sounds the "dead in Christ" shall rise first (v. 16). "We who are alive," the church saints who have not died, shall be caught up (harpazo, raptured) in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air, and thus we (the church saints) shall always be with the Lord (v. 17).

Thanks for asking.
—Dr. Mal Couch (2/11)

Adopted, Heir, Justified, and Regenerated

Dr. Couch, what is the relationship between being adopted, made an heir, and being justified or regenerated? ANSWER:  Good question. The issue of becoming an heir is found in many passages of Scripture. The word is two words put together = "Legally called, or, designated." "klaro=called, nomos=law, legally." "To be legally designated."    Paul writes "If our inheritance be of the law, it is no longer based on a promise; but God has granted it to Abraham by means of a promise" (Gal. 3:18). The inheritance has to do with salvation, and redemption. Paul adds, 'God gave us a pledge of our "inheritance, with a view to the redemption of God's own possession, to the praise of His glory" (Eph. 1:14). And, "from the Lord you will receive the reward of the inheritance ..." (Col. 3:24).' The inheritance is eternal (Heb. 9:15) and it is incorruptible (1 Pet. 1:4).    The word "adoption" ties into the idea of an inheritance. The word is used only five times in the NT. The word is a combination of two words, Son + placement. Or, "to be designated or placed as a son" (whyo [son] + thesia [placement]). "To have all the rights and privileges as a son."    An adopted child has all the rights and privileges as a son. In ancient days, even as today, there were a lot of illegitimate children, or slave children, but they could be adopted and given all the rights and blessings of a child naturally born into the family. So with us, we are adopted into the family of God and given all the privileges of a natural born child.    Paul says we have received "the Spirit of adoption as sons by which we cry out, 'Abba, Father!'" (Rom. 8:15). Or, "Daddy Father!" The apostle then ties it all together in the two verses that follow: The Spirit Himself bears witness with our spirit that we are children of God, and if children, heirs also, heirs of God and fellow heirs with Christ, if indeed we suffer with Him in order that we may also be glorified with Him" (vv. 16-17).    This adoption then makes us "children by Jesus Christ to Himself" (Eph. 1:5). "Legal adoption, heirship, justification and regeneration" all tie together in the verses we've looked at. What a blessing given to us by the process of salvation that comes to us through the Lord Jesus!    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (6-10)

What Is The Difference Between These Greek Words - Thelema, Thelo, and Thelesis?

Dr. Couch, what is the difference between the Greek words thelema, thelo, and thelesis? Are the differences simply that some are nouns and others verbs, or is there more to it? 

 

    ANSWER: All three words are from the same family root word and idea: will. As with English, sometimes the idea is to wish, to intend, to desire, to want. For example, in 1 Timothy 2:4 the Lord says that He desires (thelo) that all men be saved. We know that He has not willed that all are saved! Again, as in English, the word will can be part of a verb, such as: "I will go to town." I know that your question is prompted by wanting to understand the issue of man’s will vs. God’s will! Does man have a will or not? I can argue two ways: (1) He does not have a will, because of the fact that he is so influenced by sin, the world, circumstances, his own genetics, etc. He is dead in sin and in trespasses, and is by nature a child of wrath! (2) He has a will but it is God who directs that will to do what He wishes. Take your choice. It all comes out the same, either way! 

    Paul writes that "God ‘willed’ to make known what are the riches of the glory of this mystery [the church]" (Col. 1:27). In other words we would not know of grace apart from His "willing" such knowledge. 

    Two most interesting passages on the subject: John 1:12-13; Phil. 2:13. In John 1:12 the cause of belief is found in verse 13: "who were born not of blood (blood line), nor of the will (determined plan) of the flesh, nor of the will (the act of willing) of man, but who are born of God." If one believes it is because he is born again by the sovereign work of the Lord. 

    The great old scholar E. W. Hengstenberg says of John 1:13: "Because of the fall and its influence upon the flesh, man does not come to God by natural generation. He is incapable of the higher life unless he is regenerated of God." 

    From the Greek text of Philippians 2:13 we read: "For it is God who is the one working in you even to the Willing/Desiring and to the performing [doing] concerning [in regard to] [His] good plans." He makes us willing and willing to do what He directs to be done! 

    Thanks for asking.

    Dr. Mal Couch

Regeneration in the Old Testament

Dr. Couch, in dispensationalism it is taught that there is a "difference" between Israel and the church, but I don’t hear much about regeneration in the Old Testament. Can you help? 

 

    ANSWER:  It is a cloudy issue concerning regeneration for the OT saints. As with Abraham we know he was justified, or legally acquitted by his faith in the fact that God would be giving him an uncountable number of children (Gen. 15:6). Paul picks up on this and over and over says that belief is what now saves, though the object of that faith is Christ, whereas with Abraham it was simply trusting in God’s word. 

    The OT predicted that God would, under the New Covenant (in contrast to the Mosaic Covenant), give birth spiritually to the Jewish people as they enter the land under the millennial reign of Christ. This "new birth" is regeneration and it is unique to the New Covenant. Ezekiel says "They will come to life" (Ezek. 37:9), will be spiritually washed (36:25), have the Lord’s Spirit placed within them (v. 27), and "you will live in the land that I gave to your forefathers" (v. 28). Regeneration, or the new birth, is again described for Israel in the land like this: "I will put My Spirit within you, and you will come to life [the new birth], and I will place you in your own land" (37:14). 

    [Can you believe the foolish Reformed folks take the above verses allegorically and say this is about the church! However, some like Ellicott understand rightly that these verses are to be taken literally. He says: "Therefore the promise for Israel of earthly restoration must yet be made, and must in due time be literally fulfilled."] 

    The church now benefits from the New Covenant that was ratified by the death of Christ, though originally meant for Israel first (Luke 22:20). The church does not fulfill the New Covenant, but instead, simply benefits by the death of Christ for sins. 

    Paul gives one of the most important verses about regeneration in Titus 3:5. From the Greek he writes:

He saved us, not on the basis of works which we have done in righteousness, but according to His mercy, by means of the again birth (regeneration) and the again making (remaking) done by the Holy Spirit.

    This is virtually what is written in Ezekiel. 

    To further answer your question, dispensationalists do not propagate the differences between Israel and the church. The Bible does, and all dispensationalists do is "observe" carefully what the text indicates! 

    Thanks for asking.

    Dr. Mal Couch

Regeneration Before Saving Faith, After, or Simultaneous?

Dr. Couch, does regeneration come before saving faith, after, or is it simultaneous? 

 

    ANSWER:  This is an old debate that I am not sure we can all solve. Since we are chosen for salvation from eternity past, the issue is moot as far as I am concerned. I "lean" however toward the fact that regeneration may come first. Because we are conscious beings, we will speak forth our faith in Christ, though sovereignly moved to do so by the Holy Spirit. In Titus 3:5-7 Paul mentions the order of salvation but does not address the issue of the words of trust and faith that will come out of our hearts and minds. 

    From the Greek text the passage could read:

He saved us, not on the basis of deed which we have done by righteousness, but according to His mercy by means of the washing that takes place by the "again birth" (palingenesia) even the "again newing, remaking" (anakainosis) done by the Holy Spirit, whom He poured out upon us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior, that being legally acquitted by His grace we might be made heirs according to the anticipation of eternal life.

    Thanks for asking.

    Dr. Mal Couch,