Baptism for the Dead

Dr. Couch, what is the baptism for the dead in 1 Corinthians 15:29? ANSWER:  Good question and an issue that has stumped many through the years. There are three views: (1) People are substituted for those who have been previously baptized. (2) This is a vicarious baptism, like Mormonism. You can save uncle Bill be being baptized for him. (3) To be baptized for the dead is clarified by the expression "For the dead," using the preposition "uper" which can be translated with the idea "of in place of those who have been baptized but then died and went to heaven." In other words, other believers are coming along after those who have gone before.    The Mormon-like baptism is not found in any other teaching, or place, in the NT. It does not make sense for Paul to introduce some doctrine that has never before been mentioned in any place in the Bible. His audience must have understood what he was writing about, the problem is that we just don't!    The best way to understand this is that through the centuries many people have trusted Christ and then were baptized. They have died and gone on to glory. We are another generation that has followed, and we believed and then were baptized, replacing them as the church goes forward.    On a Mormon-like baptism, some modern commentators say that by the second century there were some being so baptized. But, Mitchell in his commentary points out, "One searches in vain for any independent historical or biblical parallel to the practice of baptisms for the dead. There was nothing like this among the Greeks and Romans. "It is extremely doubtful that the apostle would have made reference to this heretical practice without condemning it in the same breath."    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch  (6/10)