Baptism for the Dead

Dr. Couch, what is the baptism for the dead in 1 Corinthians 15:29? ANSWER:  Good question and an issue that has stumped many through the years. There are three views: (1) People are substituted for those who have been previously baptized. (2) This is a vicarious baptism, like Mormonism. You can save uncle Bill be being baptized for him. (3) To be baptized for the dead is clarified by the expression "For the dead," using the preposition "uper" which can be translated with the idea "of in place of those who have been baptized but then died and went to heaven." In other words, other believers are coming along after those who have gone before.    The Mormon-like baptism is not found in any other teaching, or place, in the NT. It does not make sense for Paul to introduce some doctrine that has never before been mentioned in any place in the Bible. His audience must have understood what he was writing about, the problem is that we just don't!    The best way to understand this is that through the centuries many people have trusted Christ and then were baptized. They have died and gone on to glory. We are another generation that has followed, and we believed and then were baptized, replacing them as the church goes forward.    On a Mormon-like baptism, some modern commentators say that by the second century there were some being so baptized. But, Mitchell in his commentary points out, "One searches in vain for any independent historical or biblical parallel to the practice of baptisms for the dead. There was nothing like this among the Greeks and Romans. "It is extremely doubtful that the apostle would have made reference to this heretical practice without condemning it in the same breath."    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch  (6/10)

Contradiction Regarding Christ's Resurrection

Dr. Couch, in Philippians 3:11 Paul says "If by any means I might attain unto the resurrection of the dead." I have heard some argue that this means Paul had some doubts about the resurrection, and the critics land on the words "if" and "might." This argument would go against what he says in 1 Corinthians 15. How do we answer? – from England ANSWER:  I don't know how the critic could get out of the verse that Paul is having questions about the resurrection! The wording certainly does not lead me to that conclusion. All Paul is saying is that he wants to be worthy of that great truth of Christ's resurrection from the dead! You must start his argument with verse 7 where he says he counts all things as loss "for the sake of Christ." He speaks of the surpassing value of knowing Christ and counts all things as dung (rubbish) so that he might gain Christ (v. 8). He is not doubting the resurrection but he is making it a center piece doctrine around which his life revolves.    From verses 7-14 there is not one piece of evidence that he doubts the resurrection! All of the language has to do with how he is living. Nicoll writes:    "The Resurrection is the Apostle's goal, for it will mean perfect, unbroken knowledge of Christ and fellowship with Him. Paul knows by experience the difficulty of remaining loyal to the end, of being so conformed to Christ's death that the power of sin will not revive its mastery over him. So his apparent uncertainty here of reaching the goal is not distrust of God. It is distrust of himself."    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (Dec., 09)