Showing posts with label Resurrection. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Resurrection. Show all posts

Monday, September 5, 2011

Resurrection and Rapture in Philippians 3:11

Dr. Couch, could the word "resurrection" (ex-anastasis) in Philippians 3:11 actually be about the rapture rather than the resurrection, as it is now translated?


ANSWER: You are correct in that this is the only place where this word is used in the NT. Technically, it translates "out-up-stand." It would be doubtful that it would be translated as "rapture." The verse concludes:


"That I may arrive at (attain to a thing, may become a partaker of) the out-up-stand along with the dead ones."

The word is clearly a compound and it is most unusual. Paul really wants to stress the resurrection. If the word was about the rapture it would include that thought, but here, he only touches on the resurrection of the "dead ones." If the rapture does not happen before he dies, he will join the righteous dead when they are brought back alive.


Thanks for asking.

Dr. Mal Couch (9/11)

Tuesday, November 2, 2010

Resurrection and the Rapture

Dr. Couch, someone has said the word "resurrection" in Philippians 3:11 may refer to the rapture of the church. What do you say?

ANSWER:  This word "resurrection" here is used only one time in the NT. It is a tri-pound Greek word "out-up-stand" or "out-resurrection." This could not refer to the rapture for several reasons. First it follows Paul's discussion of Christ's resurrection from the grave in verse 10. "That I might know Him, the power of His resurrection ..."

   While it is true that the resurrection of church saints takes place at around the same time as the rapture, they are two distinct happenings. Paul writes: when the trumpet sounds "the dead in Christ shall rise first and then we who are alive shall be caught up (raptured) together with them" (1 Thess. 4:16-17). The rapture is not a resurrection though, for the church, they will happen nearly at the same time, when the trumpet sounds.

   Also, in Philippians 3:11 Paul speaks of "the resurrection from the dead." The rapture does not take us from "the dead." We are alive when it happens!

   The apostle Paul often makes tri-pound or compound new words for emphasis. And this is what he does here in 3:11. But too, it comes right after Paul's discussion of Christ's resurrection in verse 10.

   Nicoll writes "The Resurrection is the apostle's goal, for it will mean perfect, unbroken knowledge of Christ and fellowship with Him."

   Thanks for asking.
   Dr. Mal Couch (11/10)

Tuesday, April 20, 2010

The Angel said to Daniel

Dr. Couch, what does Daniel 12:9 mean when the angel said to Daniel: "Go your way, Daniel, for these words are concealed and sealed up until the end time"?

ANSWER:  The point is that the book of Daniel, especially the Seventy Week prophecy given at the end of the book, will not be fully understood until the end times. The Jewish Rabbis say: "Until final predetermined time. Do not pry into what is presently beyond human understanding. And, none of the wicked will understand, but those who have insight will understand."

   But as for Daniel, he is to go his way "to the end, then you will enter into rest and rise again for your allotted portion at the end of the age" (v. 13). Not only Daniel, but all the righteous will be resurrected when the Kingdom arrives for Israel.

   Unger adds: "Daniel was told that the revelation he had received would not be fully comprehended until its consummation at the time of the end of Israel's woes and the dawn of the Kingdom age (cf. v. 4). Verse 10 says 'Many shall be purified and made white and tested.' The Great Tribulation thus accomplishing one of its chief purposes in God's economy, namely, to prepare a nucleus of Israel for the Kingdom."

   Thanks for asking.
   Dr. Mal Couch
(Apr., 10)

Friday, December 11, 2009

Contradiction Regarding Christ's Resurrection

Dr. Couch, in Philippians 3:11 Paul says "If by any means I might attain unto the resurrection of the dead." I have heard some argue that this means Paul had some doubts about the resurrection, and the critics land on the words "if" and "might." This argument would go against what he says in 1 Corinthians 15. How do we answer? – from England

ANSWER:  I don't know how the critic could get out of the verse that Paul is having questions about the resurrection! The wording certainly does not lead me to that conclusion. All Paul is saying is that he wants to be worthy of that great truth of Christ's resurrection from the dead! You must start his argument with verse 7 where he says he counts all things as loss "for the sake of Christ." He speaks of the surpassing value of knowing Christ and counts all things as dung (rubbish) so that he might gain Christ (v. 8). He is not doubting the resurrection but he is making it a center piece doctrine around which his life revolves.

   From verses 7-14 there is not one piece of evidence that he doubts the resurrection! All of the language has to do with how he is living. Nicoll writes:

   "The Resurrection is the Apostle's goal, for it will mean perfect, unbroken knowledge of Christ and fellowship with Him. Paul knows by experience the difficulty of remaining loyal to the end, of being so conformed to Christ's death that the power of sin will not revive its mastery over him. So his apparent uncertainty here of reaching the goal is not distrust of God. It is distrust of himself."

   Thanks for asking.
   Dr. Mal Couch
(Dec., 09)

Thursday, October 30, 2008

What About the Doctrine of the Resurrection in Scripture?

Dr. Couch, I've heard some say that the doctrine of the resurrection is not clear in Scripture. What say you?

ANSWER:  It is very clear, though the various resurrections are not spelled out in detail in the OT, such as the resurrection of church saints, those "in Christ." Two of the strongest passages in the OT: Isaiah 26:19 and Daniel 12:2. Probably because of these verses and the verses in Job, Martha could say: "I know that [brother Lazarus] will rise again in the resurrection on the last day" (John 11:24). That last day to the Jews would be at the beginning of the kingdom reign of the Messiah! Church believers, those "in Christ," will be resurrected seconds before the rapture of the living church saints (1 Thess. 4).

   One cannot find a stronger verse on the resurrection for the OT saints than Isaiah 29:19:

Your dead will live;
Their corpses will rise.
You who lie in the dust, awake and shout for joy,
For your dew is as the dew of the dawn,
And the earth will give birth to the departed spirits.

What a powerful passage and a great hope to the Jewish people!

   Thanks for asking.
   Dr. Mal Couch

Friday, June 29, 2007

Resurrection Passages in the Old Testament


Dr. Couch, I understand that there are but few resurrection passages in the OT? Is this true? 
 
    Well, not really. There are far more than you may think. Some are obscure and may be hard to discover at first. For example: Isaiah 57:1-2 and Hosea 6:2. 

    Isaiah 57:1 reads: “The righteous man perishes, and no man takes it to heart.” The righteous will be disregarded and repudiated by the world. Unger notes that the time frame here is the tribulation period when wickedness will abound (Matt. 24:9-12). Because of the excesses of the unfaithful watchmen in Israel (Isa. 56:10-12), many of the godly will perish in the violent persecutions under the apostate Jewish leaders, who will side with the Antichrist (Rev. 13:1-18). 

    “Devout men are taken away” (v. 1b) refers to the “men of covenant faithfulness” who will experience a violent death (Micah 7:2). The “righteous man is removed from evil” (v. 1c) refers to the calamitous divine judgments of the great tribulation which is about to burst upon the wicked at that time. This refers to their martyrdom and the fact that they die before all of the judgments climax toward the end of the period of wrath. 

    With the death of the righteous, “he [the righteous] enters into peace and they [all] rest on their beds” (v. 2a), i.e. “those who walked in [God’s?] upright way” (v. 2b). Unger points out that the “entering into peace” and “resting on their beds” shows they lie in calmness and peace with the certainty of awakening at the resurrection. This is virtually what is said to Daniel (Dan.12:1-2). 

    Hosea 6:2 reads: “[God] will revive us after two days; He will raise us up on the third day that we may live before Him.” 

    Unger points out that the Lord will restore the Jewish believing remnant in every way: physically, politically and spiritually. This has to do with the surviving remnant who make it through the tribulation (Matt. 24:13; Rom. 11:26). There will also be the resurrection of the OT saints who come to enjoy the millennial reign of the Son of David (Isa. 26:19; Dan. 12:2). They will be here to participate in the messianic kingdom (Ezek. 37:1-14). 

    “In the third day He will raise us up.” Unger thinks this refers to the physical resurrection of the OT Jewish saints who die in the tribulation. The “third day” may point to the fact that Christ came forth from the grave on the third day (1 Cor. 15:4). “And we shall live,” or He will “revive us,” “make us alive.” The OT saints and the godly remnant of Israel will be brought back to earth in a resurrection. The purpose of God raising up His people is that they may live “in His sight” and enjoy His favor and fellowship as in ancient times. 

    Verses like this prove the reason Martha could say to Jesus, “I know that [Lazarus] will rise again in the resurrection on the last day” (John 11:24). 

Thanks for asking.

Dr. Mal Couch

Wednesday, March 21, 2007

Is The Antichrist Really Brought Back to Life?


Dr. Couch, it is good to know that there is at least one good dispensational "Bible Answer Man." My question, is the antichrist brought back to life or just appears to have died, but really did not (Rev. 13:3). 
 
     ANSWER:  Good scholars have mixed opinions on Revelation 13:3. Some refer to 5:6 where a vision of Christ the Lamb is given "as if slain." Now we know He was indeed killed as a sacrificial lamb, and the same Greek construction is used of the antichrist in 13:3. 5:6 reads: hos esphagmenon (perf. Pass. Part.)," as having been slain." 13:3 reads in the Greek kai mian ek ton kephalon autou hos esphagmenon eis thanaton (perf. Pass. Part). In 5:6 "into death" is left out. With the participial constructions in both passages, I see something that may make a difference. In 5:6 John sees Christ as a Lamb that now is alive, though bearing the appearance, even though living, with some image or sign that He had indeed died! There is some visual reminder to John that "as if slain" He now is living! 

    In both passages (5:6, 13:3) there is the comparative language word hos translated as if, if, something like, as, it seemed to be, etc. The NAS rightly translates 13:3 about the antichrist with "as if it had been slain." Walvoord takes the view that:
"it is significant that one of the heads is wounded to death but that the beast itself is not said to be dead. It is questionable whether Satan has the power to restore to life one who has died, even though his power is great."
    I lean to the position that this is an "appearance of death" but that he does not actually die. 

    Thanks for asking.

    Dr. Mal Couch