Who Are the Saints?

Dr. Couch, are we saints today?

Answer: Yes, we positionally saints "in Christ." In almost all of Paul's letters he starts out addressing the believers as saints. Paul means that positionally we are "holy" because we are related to Him. In our walk and experience we are to live as saints. The Bible says "Be holy for I am holy." That means to be walking sanctified. While we will never become perfect, PERFECT, we are still to do what He asks.

The church is not the kingdom, though we will live with Christ in the kingdom when He returns to establish the Davidic rule on earth. The Bible almost 100% calls the kingdom the millennial reign, though sometimes it speaks of the universal kingdom rule of the Lord over His creation, but this is really just a few times in Scripture.

Christ is presently seated on His Father's throne in heaven (Psa. 110:1-2). But He says: "He who overcomes, I will grant to him to sit down with Me on My throne, as I also overcame and sat down with My Father on His throne" (Rev. 3:21). It was told Mary, "[Jesus] will be great and will be called the Son of the Most High, and the Lord God will give Him the throne of His father David; and He will reign over the house of Jacob (Israel) forever; and His kingdom will have no end" (Luke 1:32-33).

Thanks for asking. --Dr. Mal Couch (2/12)

Old Covenant Obsolete

Dr. Couch, the writer of Hebrews quotes Jeremiah 31:31-34 in Hebrews 8 regarding the New covenant "with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah," saying the New covenant has made (past tense) the Old covenant (the Mosaic Law) obsolete. Does that imply that believers today in the Church age are part of the New covenant?

ANSWER: You hit the nerve when it comes to interpreting the book of Hebrews. I have contended for years that the book is aimed not at the church but at the Jews who have not trusted in Christ. The book then is an apologetic, a polemic, aimed at causing the unbelieving Jews to turn to Jesus. Most of my theology buddies do not agree with me but the greatest Greek teacher of the last century, Dr. Kenneth Wuest who taught at Moody Bible Institute, does agree. This is his view also. I came to my position way before I read what Wuest said. (I came to my position by translating the entire book of Hebrews in graduate school. You will probably not meet any Bible teachers who have translated Hebrews. Most men have poor language training and have not gone through the book in Greek.)

How would you explain:

"Today if you hear His voice, Do not harden your hearts as when they provoked Me, as in the day of trial in the wilderness. … Therefore I was angry with this generation … As I swore in My wrath, they shall not enter My rest. And to whom did He swear that they should not enter His rest, but to those who were disobedient (disbelieving)? And so we see that they were not able to enter because of unbelief. Therefore, let us fear lest while a promise remains of entering His rest any one of you should seem to have come short of it" (3:7-4:1).

Some teachers take a mediating position and say that the book is aimed at both saved and unsaved Jews. I don't think that is defense-able.

The book of Hebrews is full of what is called "the warning passages" that some men say are just warnings to believers written in strong language. They are trying to make Hebrews fit into their mold but it won't do it! We study the Bible by strong OBSERVATION, OBSERVATION, OBSERVATION! Some of the church fathers also saw that the book was probably written to lost Jews. They were correct.

Without taking too much time to explain all of my view, I will just say that the church does indeed benefit by the New covenant but it won't be fulfilled by the Jews until they enter the kingdom and turn to Christ as their Savior. That's when it is fulfilled! Today, we receive forgiveness of sins and we receive the promised Holy Spirit, as given in the New covenant. We are not promised land promises. That is reserved for the Jews when the kingdom arrives.

You need my book entitled "The New Covenant". This will explain all of this to you.

Thanks for asking.
—Dr. Mal Couch (6/11)

The Rapture in Hebrews 9

Dr. Couch, is Hebrews 9:28 a rapture passage? It seems that it is. Seems the same here as He delivers us from the coming wrath.

ANSWER: Hebrews 9:28 reads: "So Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, shall appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him."

Remember, context is important, and I'm convinced that the book of Hebrews is written mainly to the Jews who have not accepted Him as Savior; it is not written to the church but to the Jews. Note that the passage does not say "to us who await" but to "those who await." Also, the passage is about the two comings. Technically, the rapture is not a coming. We go up to Him; His feet do not touch the ground. We are caught up to Him in the clouds.

The verse is parallel to Luke 1 where it speaks of "two" salvations, one which is His death for sins and the other is a salvation from Israel's enemies, that is, it is the kingdom salvation, which kingdom He will reign and rule over.

First coming: "To give to His people the knowledge of salvation by the forgiveness of their sins" (Luke 1:77).

Second coming: "God has raised up for us (the Jews) a horn of salvation in the house of David His servant … [Kingdom] Salvation from our enemies, and from the hand of those who hate us" (Luke 1:69-71).

This is why the passage was not used as a rapture passage. But too, we did not give all the rapture verses in the book Perhaps Today. That was not our purpose even if Hebrews 9:28 was a rapture passage, which it is not. It is a Kingdom [Second Coming] passage!

Thanks for asking.
—Dr. Mal Couch (5/11)

Size of the Temple Area

Dr. Couch, what is the size of the temple area as described in Ezekiel 45:1-6?

ANSWER: I'm rather bad with math figures but using the Jewish Soncino commentary on Ezekiel, and Dr. Merrill Unger's calculations, the temple area seems to be about 8 miles square. It is described by cubits which are still calculated at 18 inches a cubit, or 25,000 x 10,000 cubits. This is the "sacred area" for the temple plus the area for the priests, its personnel. A similar area designated, on the south, a rectangle, for [a large company of] the Levites is 25,000 x 5,000 cubits. Unger says this is for the city of Jerusalem itself. Unger writes: "The apportionment will be an 'oblation unto the Lord' (a lifting up), an offering in which the offerer raises his hand to present the gift [a sacrificial gift] to God."

All of this is for worship in the Kingdom! Unger concludes: "The Lord's temple and the priestly service are to be given top priority" in the Kingdom! And he says, "In the millennial day of the triumph of righteousness, it must be remembered that all blessing and salvation flow from the death of Christ, which makes the Kingdom age possible."

Thanks for asking.
—Dr. Mal Couch (5/11)

The Gospel of the Kingdom

Dr. Couch, what is the gospel of the kingdom mentioned in Matthew 24:14?

Answer: It is the "good news" about the coming kingdom of Christ that would be preached during the terrible period of the tribulation. We know this by the context of 24:4-28. This is not what the apostles were proclaiming. While the tribulation is bad, it will be the most productive period of evangelism ever! The gospel of the kingdom is about the fact that the Messiah is both the Savior and the coming King. Salvation is embedded in that message but the focus is about the fact that His coming will counter the kingdom of the antiChrist. Note that the gospel of the kingdom will be preached "for a witness to all the nations and then the end shall come" (Matt. 24:14). This may not happen now because the dispensation of the church age could end at any time be the rapture of the church!

We know from Acts that the disciples were proclaiming the gospel of personal salvation. See Acts 15 and look at what was happening at the Jerusalem Council. "Conversion of the Gentiles" (v. 3) and the fact that the Jews, the Pharisees, were believing in Christ as their Savior (v. 5). The Jews and the Gentiles were having their hearts "cleansed by faith" (v. 9). "Signs and wonders were being performed among the Gentiles" (v. 12). But after this, someday the Lord would return "and rebuild the tabernacle of David which had fallen," i.e. the kingdom (v. 16).

This coming kingdom would be announced during the tribulation as the "gospel of the kingdom" mentioned in Matthew.

Thanks for asking.
—Dr. Mal Couch (2/11)

Death in the Millennium

Dr. Couch, I have several questions: What about death in the millennium? And, what about the Zadok priests not being able to marry a widow of a priest who has died? (Could this be referring to the widow's husband who dies during the tribulation?) Too, the priests of Zadok are not supposed to touch a dead body in the kingdom. Does this mean that there will be no death in the kingdom, as some say, death only with the Gentiles and not the believing Jews? ANSWER:  As you noted, some say that death comes only for the Gentiles in the kingdom and not the Jews. The question: if this "saved" Gentiles or "unsaved" Gentiles? The passage we go to is Isaiah 65:17-23. There it says that concerning the Jews that an infant [who is sick] will live more than a few days (v. 20). And an "old man who [will live beyond his] days, for the youth will die at the age of one hundred" (v. 20b). And, "the one who does not reach the age of one hundred shall be thought accursed" (v. 20c).    There is a textual problem in verse 20. Some texts read: "But the sinner who does not reach the age of one hundred." "The sinner" is not in all the Hebrew texts. It is not in the NAS.    However, Unger notes: "'Accursed' shall be considered under the curse of sin, which is death. This passage clearly reveals that the curse will not be completely removed, for death will not be destroyed or sin removed till after the Millennium (1 Cor. 15:26; Rev. 20:11-15), precluding the sinless, curseless eternal state (21:8, 27: 22:15)."    The teacher you quoted often reaches too far and goes sometimes to the extreme!     Unger again writes: "The priest is not to marry a widow or a divorcee, but an unmarried woman or the widow of a priest. Strict sanctity of life for ministry for God in the kingdom temple will be stressed in accord with all other details of the Temple's construction and the ministry of its personnel in the coming age of righteousness and worldwide peace (Isa. 11:9; cf. 2:3)."    Ezekiel 44:25 says that the priests of Zadok are not to touch a dead body during the millennium. One teacher says this is talking about the death of a Gentile only. I do not hold to this view because of what I mentioned above. There is still death in the kingdom for all because death is not eradicated until the eternal state. The teacher you mentioned is trying to use Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Isaiah 65:19 to say that there will be death only for Gentiles and not the Jews, but again, I think this is a too far reach to make a point that does not need to be made! Death will be curbed but not eradicated.    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (10/11)

Christ the King

Dr. Couch, is Christ the "king" over the church, as might be hinted at in Revelation 1:6? ANSWER: This passages says that the church believers are "a kingdom, priests to [Christ's] God and Father." We are "a" kingdom but not "the" kingdom, i.e., the Millennial earthly reign of Christ over the nation of Israel! As priests, we represent God to others, and others to God. But this does not make Christ our King as He will be when He rules and reigns over the kingdom of His earthly father David. This idea leads some to say "He is king in our hearts," a concept the Bible does not bring forth. I have practiced in my interpretative life to try to speak only where the Bible speaks and not to make a leap to something that it does not put forward. Where the Bible speaks, I speak; where it does not speak, I don't speak! Over domestic relations Christ is the head of the husband, and the husband is the head of the woman (1 Cor. 11:3). Christ is said in several places to be Head of "all things" (Co. 2:10; Eph. 1:22) and He is head of the church (4:15; Col. 1:18). But the Bible does not say He is the king over the church. The idea of a king has a specific picture in mind. It implies a certain kingship rule that is not seen in the idea of "the body of Christ" with Him as its Head! I care less what the Covenant theologians think; I am not out to impress or to placate them. I am not out to compromise with them on their view of the kingdom. I will not do what they do, and that is, leap to an idea where the Word of God does not leap! Thanks for asking. Dr. Mal Couch (11/10)

2 Timothy 4:1

Dr. Couch, what is going on in 2 Timothy 4:1 and the issue about the "His appearance and His kingdom"? Is His "appearance" the rapture, and is the "kingdom" the messianic reign taught about so often in the OT? And what about the "and" ("kai") between "appearance" and "His kingdom"? ANSWER:  You sent me a lot of information about the use of the "and" which I don't think is important in understanding the passage. The context is more important here.    I do not think this passage is about the rapture of the church but about Christ's return in order to judge both those who are alive and those who have died. "Appearance" is a noun and is the word "epiphaneia." As the Lexicon says this is about "the advent of Christ" and not the rapture. He comes to earth to judge and rule!    The "by" is not a stated preposition but is embedded in the nouns "by" His appearance, and "by" His kingdom. These are genitive/ablatives in Greek grammar.    2 Timothy 4:1 fits perfectly with Matthew 25:31-46. There the King comes to sit on His throne and judge the sheep and the goats. The righteous Jews and Gentiles will inherit the kingdom "prepared for you from the foundation of the world" (v. 34).    I believe the passage is really simple. Let's not complicate it. Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (7-10)

Spirit-Driven Miracles

Dr. Couch, do the Spirit-driven miracles that are mentioned in Joel 2:26-32, and repeated in Acts 2:17-21, take place at that time in Acts, or do they only come about as Israel enters the Kingdom, when the Spirit is poured forth upon the Jewish people at that time? ANSWER:  You are speaking about the fact that God's Spirit will come "upon all mankind" (Acts 2:17) and about the Jewish sons and daughters giving prophecies, seeing visions, and dreaming dreams (vv. 17-18). Though dreams and visions are not mentioned as coming to pass in Acts, except here in this passage, this does not mean that they did not take place in the early church. I believe that these prophetic happenings took place in the early church because the Spirit is poured out with the initiation of the New covenant—the proof of which is the fact that the Spirit has come upon the believers.    I argue that Christ ratified the New covenant by His death (Luke 22:20), it was launched here in Acts 2, the church presently benefits by it, but the New covenant will not be fulfilled until it comes upon the Jewish people in the Kingdom. The two proofs of the New covenant having been launched is: (1) permanent forgiveness of sins (Jer. 31:31-34), and (2) the outpouring of the Holy Spirit as mentioned in Ezekiel 36-37, and referred to in Joel 2.    We find the Holy Spirit working in church believers with prophecy in 1 Corinthians 12-14. But again, we are not fulfilling the New covenant but only benefiting by it. It is mainly for the Jewish people, when they turn to their Messiah in the Kingdom!    A very important point is made in Acts 2:17: "I will pour forth of My Spirit upon all mankind." Peter is quoting Joel 2:28. Some try to argue that "mankind" is about the nation of Israel but this is not the case. In the Hebrew of Joel 2:28 "mankind" is the Hebrew words "Al Cal Basar." Or, "Upon all flesh." This is never used only of the Jews but of the Gentiles too. The Greek of Acts 2:28 is "pasan sarka." Again, "all flesh."    This was what was happening in Acts 2 when the Spirit was poured forth. He came upon Jews but also Gentiles. Remember the people there at Pentecost were both Jews and Gentile proselytes who were believing in the God of the OT (v. 10).    Acts 2:16 is most important. In the Greek text it reads: "But this is that which was spoken through (by means of) the prophet Joel ..." The "To be" verb "estin" is in the verse. And the "To be" verb is equal grammatically on both sides. "This is exactly that which was spoken ..." In almost all languages the Nominative case is on both sides of the "to be" verb. Or, "This is the same thing as that ..." "That which was spoken" is the Perfect Passive Participle, Nominative, Neuter. Thus, "That which was spoken of in the past, with the action coming up to the present ..." Or, "What was said back in Joel 2 is now coming up to the present ..."    Conclusion: "What Joel said is now coming about. And we're all seeing it here at Pentecost!"    I hope this helps. Thanks for asking. If you would like more on the importance of the New covenant, you may want my book that deals with that covenant but also with the coming Messianic Kingdom of Christ: "The New Covenant."    Dr. Mal Couch (6-10)

The Angel said to Daniel

Dr. Couch, what does Daniel 12:9 mean when the angel said to Daniel: "Go your way, Daniel, for these words are concealed and sealed up until the end time"? ANSWER:  The point is that the book of Daniel, especially the Seventy Week prophecy given at the end of the book, will not be fully understood until the end times. The Jewish Rabbis say: "Until final predetermined time. Do not pry into what is presently beyond human understanding. And, none of the wicked will understand, but those who have insight will understand."    But as for Daniel, he is to go his way "to the end, then you will enter into rest and rise again for your allotted portion at the end of the age" (v. 13). Not only Daniel, but all the righteous will be resurrected when the Kingdom arrives for Israel.    Unger adds: "Daniel was told that the revelation he had received would not be fully comprehended until its consummation at the time of the end of Israel's woes and the dawn of the Kingdom age (cf. v. 4). Verse 10 says 'Many shall be purified and made white and tested.' The Great Tribulation thus accomplishing one of its chief purposes in God's economy, namely, to prepare a nucleus of Israel for the Kingdom."    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (Apr., 10)

Egypt and Assyria Blessed by Israel

Dr. Couch, it looks as if Egypt and Assyria are blessed by Israel in the kingdom. Is this correct? ANSWER:  Yes, indeed! Isaiah 19:16-25 tells us that Israel will become a terror to Egypt, and that would only be in the messianic Kingdom. The Egyptians will shrink like women (v. 16), because of the purpose of the Lord against them. Five Egyptian cities will be speaking Hebrew (the Canaan language) and will swear allegiance "to the Lord of Hosts" (v. 17). The Egyptians will build an altar to the Lord in Egypt "and a pillar to the Lord near its border" (v. 19).    The Lord will make Himself known to the Egyptians and they will even make sacrifice and worship God, "and will make a vow to the Lord and perform it" (v. 21). The Lord will heal the Egyptians and He will respond to them and will heal them (v. 22). And, "In that day there will be a highway from Egypt to Assyria, and the Assyrians will come into Egypt and the Egyptians into Assyria" (v. 23). Finally, the Lord will say: "Blessed is Egypt My people, and Assyria the work of My hands and Israel My inheritance" (v. 25).    This has never happened before so we are waiting for it to take place, and that would only be during the time of the Kingdom reign of Christ! The Lord will also judge the people of present day Jordan but then, He will bless them and they will know Him—again, at the time of the Kingdom. Only dispensationalists can spot the timing of this event, and that would be the one thousand year reign of the Messiah! We sometimes forget that many peoples of earth will come to the Lord at that time. The Kingdom will be a great moment of conversion for many Gentile nations. It will be a blessed time in world history.    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (Mar., 10)

Saints of the Highest One

Dr. Couch, who are the saints of the Highest One in Daniel 7:22 who "take possession of the kingdom"? ANSWER:  This is made clear in verse 18. The Highest One is the Messiah, and the saints would be the saved Jews who take possession of the fifth Kingdom, which is His Kingdom here on earth. The saints are the saved Jewish remnant that will pass through the Great Tribulation. They take ("receive") the promises made to Israel in connection with it. This would also include the resurrected Israelites (Dan. 12:2), the Jews who are the believing Jews of all generations. Unger adds: "It is significant that the designation of God as the 'Most High, possessor of heaven and earth' (Gen. 14:18-22) is employed of the time that the Messiah will come to make good that title in His Kingdom rule."    The one thousand year temporal reign of Christ will merge into the eternal state when Christ, after His reign on the earth, will deliver up "the kingdom to God, even the Father. ... that God may be all in all" (1 Cor. 15:24-28).    The Jewish Rabbis understand Daniel 7 more than one thinks they do. They write on His "coming with the clouds of heaven": "If Israel is worthy, the Messiah will come riding the clouds; if not, He will come in the guise of a poor man riding an ass." Actually, He came first on the donkey, and His second coming will be in the clouds!    And, the Rabbis write, on "The Son of Man" mentioned in verse 13: "According to verse 27 it refers to the regenerated people of Israel. Rabbinical exegesis applies it to the Messiah." Verse 27 reads: "Then, the sovereignty, the dominion, and the greatness of all the kingdoms under the whole heaven will be given to the people of the saints of the Highest One; His kingdom will be an everlasting kingdom, and all the dominions will serve and obey Him."    The Rabbis speak of the "regenerated people," and that is exactly what Christ says. He mentions the "regeneration" that takes place "when the Son of Man(kind) will sit on His glorious throne" (Matt. 19:28). Here, Christ is speaking of the "regenerated" nation of Israel when the Kingdom begins and He is ruling over the Jewish people.    In so many places, the theology of the orthodox Jews is the same as our Savior, the Lord Jesus Christ!    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (Feb., 10)

Translation of Joel 3:21

Dr. Couch, what is going on in the translation of Joel 3:21? There is a different word used: "I will acquit," or "I will pardon," or "I will avenge." Which word should be used? ANSWER:  The Rabbis translate this as "I will hold as innocent their blood that I have not held as innocent." The point of the passage is that God has not avenged the Jews because of all the terrible treatment they experienced from the Egyptians and the Edomites, as mentioned in verse 19. But He will someday!    Unger prefers "avenged" and says about this word NaCHaT: "The Lord had not cleansed. Their bloodguilt, which I have not pardoned, I will pardon." "Zion will have come into salvation and fellowship with her Redeemer [in the future kingdom], and her Redeemer will make His dwelling place with her."    In the Hebrew this verb is a Piel form and should be translated "I will definitely, intensely avenge" Israel. God is going to do this someday when Israel is being blessed in the kingdom with the Messiah reigning! We are getting closer to this great Day! He is coming soon.    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (Jan., 10)

Problems in the Church

Dr. Couch, the problems go on in the church I'm involved in. What do I do? ANSWER  You mentioned the terrible confusion in the teaching there in the country where you live. The leaders do not know what they believe and they are mixing kingdom and church issues because of their blindness and ignorance of the Bible. It amazes me how we want science to be precise but we are ready to compromise when it comes to the "science" of interpretation of the biblical texts. What foolishness and blindness!    Someone will say, what do you mean by science of the Bible? They fail to realize that we start with the grammar of Scripture, and we must be "scientifically accurate when approaching the interpretative issues. Science means we also must interpret by logic, history, the social background of the Bible, etc. If we don't, we will not understand what's going on in the passages of Scripture. It is the Holy Spirit who inspired the authors in their usage of the right grammar of the Hebrew and Greek texts. And the Bible has a setting, a social, historic setting, which we must understand in order to be exegetes of the Word. I must follow the interpretative lead of the Holy Spirit. I can't be sloppy in my study of the Bible.    You mentioned that the leaders of the church could not identify whether they were amill, premill, postmill, Arminian or Calvinistic in their understanding of the Bible. And they knew nothing about the clear passages on the rapture of the church, which fouled up their total understanding and teaching of the book of Revelation. And these are teaching leaders?    I predicted many years ago we'd be in this mess once the leaders of the churches abandoned systematic theology and went to "feel good" messages, entertainment and emotion. And sure enough, I was correct!    Don't forget that Paul predicted the apostasy we are now in. He wrote: "For the time will come when they will not endure sound (healthy) doctrine (not feel good messages), but wanting to have their ears ticked (wanting entertainment), they will accumulate for themselves teachers in accordance to their own desires; and will turn away from the truth, and will turn aside to myths (lies)" (2 Tim. 4:3-4).    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (Dec., 09)

Gnostics Allegorized the Bible

Dr. Couch, didn't the Gnostics allegorize the Bible? ANSWER:  Yes, but the problem with the Gnostics is something else besides allegorical interpretation. Allegorization started way before the Gnostic cults. The biggest issue with them was their secret-ness, their immorality, and their "spiritualizing" the person of Christ. We do not know all that they taught. In fact, each group held to somewhat different beliefs. And, they really came on the scene sometime after the time of Christ. John the apostle seems to be standing against incipient Gnosticism in his letters of I-III John, written about AD 90-95.    To allegorize the Scriptures is treated in detail in my book An Introduction to Classical Evangelical Hermeneutics (Kregel). The pages are 95-103. The word Gnostic is related to the Greek word ginosko, to know. They believed they had higher spiritual knowledge and knew things that the average person did not know.    Allegorization was expanded and made popular by Augustine. He taught that the Church had become Israel. Thus, the kingdom was the Church here on earth, and, God was finished with the Jews. When he came to the words Jerusalem, or kingdom, he said these words were really about the Church. Charismatics hold to some Gnostic thoughts. Everyone has heard them say, "I don't care what the Bible says, I know what my experience is!" Experience is seen as higher than objective fact in Scripture.    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch

Jesus' Knowledge Regarding End Times Events

Dr. Couch, I have heard some say that from Mark 13:32 Jesus did not know the time of the beginning of the tribulation events and of the time of His return to earth in order to reign and rule in His kingdom. Is this true? ANSWER:  The words of Christ in that passage reads: "But of that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone."    Many "good" theologians miss the point on this passage. Being very God, there is nothing that Christ could not have known. God the Son cannot "unknow" the facts of history. Philippians 2:6-7, and the doctrine of the kenoses ("to empty"), may help us understand what is happening here in Mark. The Philippians passage reads "He emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, ..." When Christ was born into the realm of mankind, He did not become less than God but He set aside His divine glory and took the form of a slave. A slave is not serving Himself but the One higher than He is. The Father in rank is above the Son, but the Son is not less than the Father in His deity!    Thus, the prerogative of Christ in His work on earth was that of a slave. Therefore, the Father is sovereign in decisions, and the Son obeys the Father and does His biding. "The knowledge of the final plans of history" is the prerogative of the Father not of the Son! Part of the key also is the word "know" in the Mark passage. It is the Greek word "oida." Oida is an intuitive knowledge over against a body of knowledge expressed by "ginosko." It is intuitive with the Father to have the knowledge of the plan of history. It is His plan! This does not mean that the Son did not know what the plan was; but it was with the Father specifically to know when He would execute the working out of the tribulation and the kingdom at a specific point in time. This was not the prerogative of the Son!    In my commentary series, McGowan quotes Lenski who says: "In their essential oneness the three persons [of the Trinity] know all things, but in his humiliation the second person did not use his divine attributes save as he needed them in his mediatorial work." I would soften this statement somewhat and say that Christ did not, as a servant, speak what He knew because He left such knowledge with the Father, and the Father determined not to reveal the specific day or hour when the end time events would begin! Thus, the Son acquiesced to His Father and did not reveal this information, but He left the issue in the hands of His Father.    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (Nov., 09)

Israel Fulfills the New Covenant

Dr. Couch, you have made me a believer in regard to the fact that the church benefits from the New covenant today, but we do not "fulfill" it as Israel will in the kingdom. Why do people resist this idea? I'm specifically referring to the quoting of Joel 2 in Acts 2, and the pouring out of the Holy Spirit. ANSWER:  Mainly because they do not read their Bible; they do not have good interpretive skills! This is why I wrote one of the few books available today on hermeneutics: Classical Evangelical Hermeneutics (Kregel).    I will only have space here to summarize:    (1) For Israel, the New covenant is prophesied in Jeremiah 31:31-on. (2) It will be activated by the work of the Spirit, as prophesied in Joel 2:28-29. (3) Christ said that His sacrifice would ratify the New covenant. (Luke 22:20): "This cup which is poured out for you is the new covenant in My blood." (4) The New covenant is then "launched" at Pentecost (Acts 2:16-21), but it is not fulfilled by the church, though the church will benefit and represent the New covenant during the church dispensation.    There are three places in Paul's letters that show the church has a connection with the New covenant presently but the verses never say we fulfill it now. It will be fulfilled when applied to Israel during the dispensation of the Kingdom.    Paul speaks to the Jews in Romans 2:17-29 and argues that, for them, to be a believing Jew today, their circumcision is spiritual and their Jewish-ness is inward. Then he adds, "by the Spirit, not by the letter [of the Mosaic law]; the Jews' praise is not from men, but from God." Here Paul compares the New covenant with the Law and points out that it has replaced the "letter of the Law" as prophesied in Jeremiah 31. There Jeremiah said that the New covenant will replace the Mosaic covenant. "The New covenant will not be like "My covenant which I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt, My covenant which they broke ..."    Paul speaks of the New covenant again in Romans 7:6: "We serve in newness of the Spirit and not in oldness of the letter [of the law]." The Holy Spirit mentioned in both 2:29 and 7:6 is the Activator of the New covenant today in the church age. Paul mentions the New covenant again in 2 Corinthians 3:3 where he says the church saints are a letter of Christ "written not with ink, but with the Spirit of the living God, not on tablets of stone, but on tablets of human hearts ..." Here, Paul is again comparing the work of the Spirit, who is the Activator of the New covenant, with the Mosaic law. He adds that we are now "servants of a New covenant, not of the letter [of the law] but of the Spirit; for the letter kills, but the Spirit gives life" (v. 6).    It is important to look carefully at what Peter says about the outpouring of the Holy Spirit in Acts 2:16. He (1) does not say the outpouring of the Spirit at Pentecost fulfills Joel 2 [as the amillennialists would say], nor (2) does he say that it is simply an "illustration" of the work of the Spirit, as mentioned in Joel 2 [as some dispensational buddies of mine would say]. But instead, in quoting Joel 2:28-29, he says "But this is what was spoken of through the prophet Joel."    One must know Greek in order to fully understand what is going on here. Peter writes: "This IS 'that which has been written'". The IS is the common "TO BE" verb (estin). And "which has been written" is a Perfect Passive Participle, Neuter, Nominative. In Greek (and in English) on both sides of the TO BE verb you have the Nominative case. Thus, this which [is now going on—the outpouring of the Holy Spirit] has been written (ereo) is simply the same thing as mentioned in Joel 2!    Peter had ways to say that Joel 2 was an illustrative of the outpouring of the Spirit; and he had ways of saying that Joel 2 was being fulfilled here in Acts 2, but Peter did not say either one of these things!    The only sound conclusion is that the church presently is benefiting from the outpouring of the Spirit, and of the New covenant, but the church is not fulfilling the New covenant! That will happen with Israel when the Kingdom arrives and the Jews are back in the Land! At that time, for them, the New covenant will be fulfilled!    This is complicated to write, so I hope it makes sense. Many of my friends are now seeing the issue this way, and I think this is correct.    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (Oct., 09)

Apostasy in the Old Testament

Dr. Couch, is apostasy mentioned in the OT? ANSWER:  Yes it is, especially mentioned in passages dealing with the future kingdom blessing: like Hosea 14:4-7. The difference with the apostasy in the OT and apostasy in the NT, is that apostasy in the OT is particularly dealing with the falling away of Israel as a nation. In the NT it is about individuals who have a form of godliness but are really not saved. And, there is no restoration for those who fall away in the NT context. But God will restore the nation of Israel. The Jews will be regathered for the kingdom, as mentioned in Hosea 14.    Hosea 14:1 begins: "Return, O Israel, to the Lord your God, for you have stumbled because of your iniquity." Then Israel, "return to the Lord, receive us graciously, that we may present the fruit of our lips" before the Lord (v. 2).    God then says, "I will heal their apostasy, I will love them freely, for My anger has turned away from them" (v. 4). "Love them freely" is a reference to the Freewill Offerings, although the Jewish people have not earned God's love. Yet, He is prepared to let them have His love as a gift!    The Hebrew word "apostasy" is "meshuva" and means "departure, faithlessness, defection." It is related to other Hebrew words that mean "deception, desolate," as referring to a "desolate desert land." Those in apostasy are like the dry desert, spiritually speaking!    In Hosea 14:5, God says He will be like the dew to Israel that waters the dry land. The Rabbis say, when the messianic Davidic kingdom is established, Israel will blossom like the lily and take root like the cedars of Lebanon. Israel will have beauty like the olive tree (v. 5). With blessing, the Jews will move out of the shadows and "will again raise grain" in the sunlight, and will be prosperous (v. 7).    The Lord urges the Jews to be wise: they must "understand these things" (v. 9). Because "the ways of the Lord are right, and the righteous [Jews will] walk in them" (v. 9).    PRAY FOR ISRAEL! God is beginning to work again with the Jewish people; the entire world is moving toward the times prophesied in Scripture! On this Hosea 14 passage, the Rabbis write:    "With a desperate call God is urging Israel to repentance. Israel is pleaded with in this chapter to give up the folly of wandering from the Lord. Let the people learn from their hard experiences to trust in Him; assurance of forgiveness is held out to them. Dew is essential for the growth of vegetation. The Divine Grace will enable Israel to flourish."    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (Oct. 2009)

Matthew 7 and Salvation

Dr. Couch, I have heard some say that Matthew 7:13-27 is about the church; they make a case for belief not being enough to enter the kingdom—only those who do the will of the Father will enter. It seems this section is dealing with false prophets. Aren't these the predominant ones during the time of Christ who claimed to prophesy, etc. And, who were the ones doing this stuff in Israel at the time of Christ? ANSWER:  I won't be able to deal with this entire section in this short answer. It is important to say here that there are many spiritual principles in this section (Matthew 5-7: The Sermon on the Mount). So I will simply point out some observations that would tell us this is not first for the church; it has to do with what was happening with the nation of Israel as Christ began His ministry. And the passage is more than simply about false teachers.    Note the following: (1) The entire section has to do with the presentation of the millennial kingdom, here called "The kingdom of heaven" (5:3; 10, 19, 20; 6:10, 33; 7:21). (2) The church is made up of Jews and Gentiles but in this section, Christ compares the Jews with the Gentiles (5:47; 6:7, 32). (3) The Lord speaks of the synagogue in this section (6:2, 5), and (4) The giving of alms, which was a distinct Jewish practice (6:2, 3). Note 6:2: the church is not even around! "When you give alms, do not sound a trumpet before you, as the hypocrites do in the synagogues ..." 5:20 is a distinct Jewish passage that cannot be understood unless one sees that the verse is aimed at the thinking of the Jews. "I say to you, that unless your righteousness surpasses that of the scribes (Jewish) and Pharisees (very Jewish), you shall not enter the kingdom of heaven."    Those who try to make a direct application of the Sermon on the Mount to the church have no understanding of history. There is no question but that the "kingdom of heaven, kingdom of God" is a description of the messianic kingdom! In no way is this used to describe the church age! If this is settled in one's mind, this section of verses makes definite sense. Again, while there are many principles that we can embrace in the Sermon on the Mount, it is not directed to the church age. We can have secondary application in some things the Lord says, but not direct application!    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (Oct.2009)

Interpretation of Isaiah 25:6-9

Dr. Couch, what is going on in Isaiah 25:6-9? Is there a relation in these verses with 2 Corinthians 3:14-17? ANSWER:  Yes, there is. A lavish banquet is prepared on the mountain of Zion (Jerusalem) as the Millennial reign of Christ begins (v. 6). The Lord "will swallow up the covering (the death veil, the death mourning face cover) which is over all peoples" (v. 7a). It is also stretched over all nations. This is about the knowledge of salvation that is hidden from all people because of sin.    It is the Messiah who "will swallow up death for all time, and the Lord God will wipe tears away from all faces" (v. 8). The Lord has spoken, "And it will be said in that day, 'Behold, this is our God for whom we have waited that He might save us. This is the Lord for whom we have waited; let us rejoice and be glad in His salvation'" (v. 9).    Please note that it is God who is coming. How can that be? No one has seen God the Father! This is God the Son—the Son of God, who makes a personal and public appearance in the form of the Messiah! Salvation is mentioned twice: "He might save us," and "Be glad in His salvation." It is in the Kingdom when the Jews for the most part will have their eyes opened and they will realize who the Messiah is! He is very God and He is the Savior! And, the Jews will see God (the Son) in the flesh in the Kingdom!    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch