Brothers in Romans 10:1

Dr. Couch, who are the “brothers” in Romans 10:1? Are these Jewish brethren or Gentile believers?

ANSWER: These would possibly be both Jewish and Gentile believers because Paul speaks of the Jews in the third person. They are the “them” in the passage who Paul is concerning about. He wants them to be saved (v. 1).

Good question and thanks for asking.
Dr. Mal Couch (7/12)

Audience of the Gospels

Dr. Couch, to whom were the gospels written?

ANSWER: By the language and the internal content we have come up with a pretty good idea who the audience was for each book. Most scholars seem to agree on this. Having translated all the gospels from the Greek text, I concur that we have it down pretty well.

Matthew was written to the Jews to prove that Christ was the Son of David and of course a descendent of Adam.

Mark was written to the Romans because it is a letter short and to the point and meant to explain to them the efficiency of the Lord as a Leader. This would appeal to the Roman mind.

Luke was written in almost classical Greek by physician Luke. Check out my Luke commentary that I wrote in my commentary series. It was written mainly for the Greeks and shows that Christ was the Son of Man, or of Mankind.

John was written to the Gentiles in a wide and broad way. He explains many words and ideas that would help the Gentile under Jewish issues and geographical locations. The book is easy reading and perfect for explaining to the Gentile world the nature of the Savior.

Thanks for asking.
Dr. Mal Couch (7/12)

Acts 2:38

Dr. Couch, what is going on in Acts 2:38?

ANSWER: First of all, everything said in that verse is applicable to the Jews as well as to the Gentiles. It is about the church and not simply for Israel alone. As well, you cannot translate the passage without knowing the Greek language. That is why I have taken more Greek courses than anyone you will ever know. I have almost 60 hours of graduate Greek. This is important to understanding the doctrinal issues in the NT.

If Peter had given that verse in English he would have received a grade of F. You must understand how Greek grammar works.

In the verse you have a mixture of singulars and plurals. We don't mix singulars and plurals in English grammar but it was accepted in Greek. Here's how the verse reads in the grammar of Greek:

• "All of you (plural) repent (Aorist T.) for the forgiveness of (all of your sins, plural) …
• and all of you (plural) shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. Then let each one of you (singular)
• be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ."

Repentance brings about forgiveness of sins and the receiving of the Holy Spirit. Then after they have repented and received forgiveness, the individual is to be baptized in water as a sign of their being washed which is a sign of their salvation.

In this, all the plurals are kept together and the singular is kept separate as well.

The Jerusalem congregation is mentioned in Acts 5 and it is called a "church" (v. 11). And it is called again the Jerusalem church in 8:1-3. Some wrongly attempt to say that the church did not begin until chapter 9. When I showed these verses to one who held that false view, he dropped his mistaken idea.

The great scholar Nicoll points out that at that time Baptism was the sign of the admission into the visible church, whether Jew or Gentile.

The great grammarian A.T. Robertson agrees and writes:

"Change of number from plural to singular and of person from second to third. This change marks a break in the thought here that the English translation does not preserve. The first thing to do is make a radical and complete change of heart and life. Then let each one be baptized after this change has taken place, and the act of baptism be performed 'in the name of Jesus Christ.'"

Thanks for asking.
--Dr. Mal Couch (4/12)

What About the Jewish People in the Book of Hebrews?

Dr. Couch, I understand that some of the best Greek teachers along with yourself hold that the Jews in the book of Hebrews had not accepted Christ as their Savior. They were "hearers" but they had not believed in Him as their Lord as required for salvation. I have felt the same thing as I have read Hebrews. Is this correct?

ANSWER: Yes, you are right. The great Dr. Kenneth Wuest who taught at Moody, and who was one of the best Greek professors of the last century held to this position. As you know, I taught at Moody and was influenced by his spirituality and scholarship. He wrote:

"These Jews had allowed the Holy Spirit to carry them along to the place of repentance. Now … if they should refuse the faith by which they could lay hold of the High Priest as their Savior, and return to the abrogated sacrifices of the First Testament (the animal sacrifices), it would be impossible to bring them back to the act of repentance again. … They refused the light and turned back into the darkness of sin and continued unbelief, so these Hebrews were in danger of doing a like thing. These Jews were like the Hebrew spies at Kadesh-Barnea who saw the land and had the very fruit in their hands, and yet turned back (4:1-13). They were like many sinners who heard the message and then said "The world is too much with us," and then turned back into sin.

They were partakers of the Holy Spirit but this does not mean they were possessors! The Spirit had led them into the act of repentance. The next step would be that of faith. But here they were in danger of turning their backs upon the Spirit and returning again to the sacrifices. They had been led into repentance. Now should they fall away from their profession of faith in the Messiah and back to the sacrifices, it would be impossible to renew them to repentance (6:6-8). The apostle warned these unsaved Hebrews from making such a thing a reality.

Before I had read Wuest's comments I had already come to the position that these Jews were not saved but only professors who had not truly trusted in Christ as Savior! I am very surprised at believers who do not study carefully the Word of God! They are just copy-kats who simply quote what others have said.

Thanks for asking.
--Dr. Mal Couch (2/12)

How Were the Old Testament Jews Saved?

Dr. Couch, How were the Old Testament Jews saved?

ANSWER: They were saved and made righteous by their trust, their faith. Paul uses Genesis 15:6 over and over again to prove this. "And Abraham believed God and He counted it unto him as righteousness." In other words, he and all the OT saints just believed what God had said and the Lord counted it unto him as positional righteousness.

After the coming of Christ, everyone had to trust Christ as the sin-bearer for their salvation. Of course, God saw His Son as the Savior, even for Abraham. The Lord applied the work of Christ for all who trusted what He had said. This was sufficient for God. He was satisfied with the coming work of Christ on the cross. In a sense, salvation is applied back to those who trusted what the Lord had said, and He applies now forward the work of Christ to those of us who now trust what He did for us.

Thanks for asking.
--Dr. Mal Couch (2/12)

Yum Kippur

Dr. Couch: What is Yom Kippur?

ANSWER: This is the Day of Atonement that comes in the Fall. It was the Day in which Israel was to repent of their sins both nationally and personally. In the book by Scofield Ministries entitled "Messianic Systematic Theology of the Old Testament" you can read a full treatment of the subject. The Day of Atonement is not mentioned in the NT. Christ completes the work of our full salvation and therefore we are not under a repeated Atonement today.

The main passage on Yom Kippur is found in Leviticus 16:29-34. The Jewish Rabbis write extensively on the subject from the orthodox perspective. The Jews were told that once each year they were to confess their sins. Kippur means "a covering." You can hear "covering" in "kippur." Repentance and contrition is a great part of the Day of Atonement. The Rabbis say "without such confession, accompanied by the solemn resolve to abandon the way of evil, fasting in itself is not the fulfillment of the Divine command and purpose of the Day of Atonement."

The Jews knew the importance of sacrifice in Atonement. The Bible says "the blood by reason of life that makes atonement" (Lev. 17:11). And the Lord adds "You must afflict (humble) your souls" (23:32). The Rabbis add: "while life and blood are not quite identical, the blood is the principle carrier of life. The blood on the Altar was for the spiritual welfare of the worshiper, not for the gratification of God."

I have been in Israel in October on Yom Kippur 1973, at the time when the Arabs attacked the Jewish people and almost were victorious against them. I was there one other time during Yom Kippur and joined the Jewish families when they gathered together at the Wailing Wall to celebrate that great day. The families put down blankets on the pavement, had food for the small children and then read the book of Lamentations, written by Jeremiah as a reminder of the Fall of Jerusalem and the temple in 586 BC. What a great experience!

Thanks for asking.
--Dr. Mal Couch (10/11)

Is the Sermon on the Mount for today?

Dr. Couch, I understand that some think that the Sermon on the Mount (Matt. 5-7) is not applicable to the church age today. Is this true, and, what do you think?



ANSWER: In the Bible there are first and secondary applications in various chapters. A question: is the Law in the OT seen with a first application to us today, or a secondary application? Are we under the Law, or was the Law for the Jewish people during their existence in OT times?

All would answer that the Law was for the Jews during the dispensation of the Law. Yet, there are great spiritual principles in the Law for us today, but not with direction application. I can learn many great principles from the Law as I read it but we are not under the Law in a direct way now in this church age.

The same is true with the Sermon on the Mount. For example we read in Matthew 5:3 of the "poor in spirit, for theirs is the kingdom of heaven." Do the poor today receive blessings by being under the kingdom of heaven? Of course not, the kingdom of heaven is the messianic kingdom that is yet to come, when Christ returns as Israel's Messiah! This was anticipated by the Jews, but the kingdom of heaven is not the church today.

Do you think that 5:20 is about us today, those now living in the church age? It reads: "Unless your righteousness surpasses that of the scribes and Pharisees, you shall not enter the kingdom of heaven." Do you think that is for the church presently? Of course not!

Are we guilty of fiery hell (5:22) if we say to a brother RACA? This is extremely Jewish and must be understood in regard to the Jews who were then under the Law.

Do we stand and pray in the synagogue as mentioned in 6:5. No, we do not. Do we "seek first His kingdom and His righteousness" as the Jews? To a certain extent yes but in another sense we do not (6:33).

Again, while there are certain spiritual lessons in the Sermon on the Mount for us today, these verses are not first for the church dispensation. They were for the Jews who were looking for the messianic rule of the Messiah over Israel in the Holy Land. First application would be for Israel and the Jews; second application would be for us, but interpreted with caution.

When we read our newspaper we apply the same principles of interpretation. I know that the first page of my newspaper is about "hard" news and is not the advertising section of the paper. I know that it is not the editorial section, nor the want-ad section. When I read my newspaper I read it with sound "hermeneutics." I apply the various sections in the proper way. I don't simply apply every paragraph directly to me, from every sentence, with a broad stroke of the brush! I do the same when reading and applying the Bible to every situation.

Common sense is needed when reading the Scriptures!

I hope this helps. Thanks for asking. --Dr. Mal Couch (9/11)

Old Covenant Obsolete

Dr. Couch, the writer of Hebrews quotes Jeremiah 31:31-34 in Hebrews 8 regarding the New covenant "with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah," saying the New covenant has made (past tense) the Old covenant (the Mosaic Law) obsolete. Does that imply that believers today in the Church age are part of the New covenant?

ANSWER: You hit the nerve when it comes to interpreting the book of Hebrews. I have contended for years that the book is aimed not at the church but at the Jews who have not trusted in Christ. The book then is an apologetic, a polemic, aimed at causing the unbelieving Jews to turn to Jesus. Most of my theology buddies do not agree with me but the greatest Greek teacher of the last century, Dr. Kenneth Wuest who taught at Moody Bible Institute, does agree. This is his view also. I came to my position way before I read what Wuest said. (I came to my position by translating the entire book of Hebrews in graduate school. You will probably not meet any Bible teachers who have translated Hebrews. Most men have poor language training and have not gone through the book in Greek.)

How would you explain:

"Today if you hear His voice, Do not harden your hearts as when they provoked Me, as in the day of trial in the wilderness. … Therefore I was angry with this generation … As I swore in My wrath, they shall not enter My rest. And to whom did He swear that they should not enter His rest, but to those who were disobedient (disbelieving)? And so we see that they were not able to enter because of unbelief. Therefore, let us fear lest while a promise remains of entering His rest any one of you should seem to have come short of it" (3:7-4:1).

Some teachers take a mediating position and say that the book is aimed at both saved and unsaved Jews. I don't think that is defense-able.

The book of Hebrews is full of what is called "the warning passages" that some men say are just warnings to believers written in strong language. They are trying to make Hebrews fit into their mold but it won't do it! We study the Bible by strong OBSERVATION, OBSERVATION, OBSERVATION! Some of the church fathers also saw that the book was probably written to lost Jews. They were correct.

Without taking too much time to explain all of my view, I will just say that the church does indeed benefit by the New covenant but it won't be fulfilled by the Jews until they enter the kingdom and turn to Christ as their Savior. That's when it is fulfilled! Today, we receive forgiveness of sins and we receive the promised Holy Spirit, as given in the New covenant. We are not promised land promises. That is reserved for the Jews when the kingdom arrives.

You need my book entitled "The New Covenant". This will explain all of this to you.

Thanks for asking.
—Dr. Mal Couch (6/11)

A Thank You

Dr. Couch, your book "Messianic Systematic Theology of the Old Testament" is really unique. The way you present the biblical doctrines with quotes from the Rabbis (and correcting them when they are wrong) is invaluable. I found the chapter on "The Son of God" particularly profitable. I have had the opportunity to witness to Jews and they are extremely confused about their own Messiah. Evan messianic Jews are confused, many of them are into Arianism. This book is a tremendous tool for evangelism. God bless you and God bless Israel! --Dr. E. R., Brazil



ANSWER: Thank you for your kind comments on the book. I wrote it for messianic Jews but as yet I only have a few takers. They are, unfortunately, too much into their own thinking without any training from theologians such as myself. Some believe we "Gentiles" certainly could not know anything about the OT. I will try to get the book out at no charge to any messianic Jew or anyone working with Jews for salvation. I sense that the Jewish community does not really want to know what the OT teaches, and too, I sense the same thing from messianic Jews. Many are into emotionalism and the charismatic movement but fail to try to understand the Scriptures from a strong objective position. They are really babes when it comes to studying the Word of God, and it seems often they just want to stay that way. If this is offensive to some and provokes them—good! I want them to start thinking and studying the Bible seriously, or otherwise, they are going to fail in their mission and in their comprehension of God's Word!

Again, thank you for your kind comments. —Dr. Mal Couch (6/1)

An Early Reference to the Church

Dr. Couch, is John 10:16 an early reference to the church?

ANSWER: The passage reads: "I have other sheep which are not of this fold; I must bring them also, and they shall hear My voice; and they shall become one flock with one shepherd."

This is very possibly a beginning reference to the church which consists of Jew and Gentile together in one body. See Ephesians 2:11-3:21. However, Christ could be talking about the Jews who were standing around Him at the time. In other words, the "other sheep" are Jews who were not there at that moment. I lean toward this for the following reason:

The "Good Shepherd" reference is about God and is found in Ezekiel 34:11-24. In this passage the Lord God is the Shepherd and Israel is the Flock (v. 12). Christ is therefore claiming to be the Good Shepherd of Ezekiel 34! There is no other "outside" flock in the passage that could be referring to Gentiles. And, king David will be the shepherd (God's servant) over them (vv. 23-24). Too, David will be the Prince among them, that is, among the Jews (v. 24). Read thoroughly the Ezekiel passage.

When we read the Word of God we must read carefully and slowly. Observe, observe, observe!

Thanks for asking.
—Dr. Mal Couch (5/11)

The Rapture in Hebrews 9

Dr. Couch, is Hebrews 9:28 a rapture passage? It seems that it is. Seems the same here as He delivers us from the coming wrath.

ANSWER: Hebrews 9:28 reads: "So Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, shall appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him."

Remember, context is important, and I'm convinced that the book of Hebrews is written mainly to the Jews who have not accepted Him as Savior; it is not written to the church but to the Jews. Note that the passage does not say "to us who await" but to "those who await." Also, the passage is about the two comings. Technically, the rapture is not a coming. We go up to Him; His feet do not touch the ground. We are caught up to Him in the clouds.

The verse is parallel to Luke 1 where it speaks of "two" salvations, one which is His death for sins and the other is a salvation from Israel's enemies, that is, it is the kingdom salvation, which kingdom He will reign and rule over.

First coming: "To give to His people the knowledge of salvation by the forgiveness of their sins" (Luke 1:77).

Second coming: "God has raised up for us (the Jews) a horn of salvation in the house of David His servant … [Kingdom] Salvation from our enemies, and from the hand of those who hate us" (Luke 1:69-71).

This is why the passage was not used as a rapture passage. But too, we did not give all the rapture verses in the book Perhaps Today. That was not our purpose even if Hebrews 9:28 was a rapture passage, which it is not. It is a Kingdom [Second Coming] passage!

Thanks for asking.
—Dr. Mal Couch (5/11)

Jewish Believers in the Gospels

Dr. Couch, what happened to the Jews who accepted Christ as their Messiah in the Gospels?

ANSWER: Good question. You're right. They did not know fully of the fact of His work as the Savior, though they may have known more than we imagine. But if they accepted Him as their Messiah I take it they were acting on all the revelation they had and they were saved! Apparently, the Jews were saved by having faith in what God was revealing, like Abraham as seen in Genesis 15:6. He just believed God and that was sufficient at that point.

However, they knew that the Messiah would justify many (Isa. 53:12). And, "they would be given the knowledge of salvation by the forgiveness of their sins" (Luke 1:77). In the book of John the verb "to believe" in Christ is used some 90 times. The Jews believed in Him by what He said or by what He did. Surprisingly, the noun "to believe" is not used at all in John! So "to believe" according to John is an active idea! The Jews were holding on to the Lord then by faith. He was the object of that faith but it was not fully understood theologically by all the people.

They would then be added to the church in Acts 2 when the Holy Spirit was poured out.

I hope this helps. Thanks for asking.
—Dr Mal Couch (5/11)

Abrahamic Covenant for Today

Dr. Couch, is the Abrahamic covenant still applicable for the Jews today?

ANSWER: Yes, indeed, it is, because first of all, it is called an eternal covenant that is still in operation. Note Psalm 105:8-11. There it states that the covenant was made with Abraham and passed down to Isaac and then Jacob as "an everlasting covenant, saying, 'To you I will give the land of Canaan as the portion of your inheritance.'" See also verses 42-45. As well: Isaiah 41:8-11.

Christ said that God made a promise to the Jewish people, and, do they not know, He is (Present tense, exists as) "the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? He is not the God of the dead but of the living" (Matt. 22:31-32). And they are alive in glory! These fathers still exist and the Lord has not forgotten His promises to them.

Mary was promised a fulfillment "of what had been spoken to her by the Lord. And Mary said, 'He has given help to Israel His servant, in remembrance of His mercy, as He spoke to our fathers, to Abraham and his offspring (future Jewish generation) forever'" (Luke 1:54-55).

Zacharias added: God determined "to show mercy toward our fathers, and to remember His holy covenant, the oath which He swore to Abraham our father, to grant us that we being delivered from the hand of our enemies, might serve Him without fear, in holiness and righteousness before Him all our days" (vv. 72-75).

These promises are given to the Jews and they have not been canceled.

Luke 1:31-33 is also important. Christ, the Son of David will establish His rule, throne, and kingdom, and it will have no end, it will be eternal. This is the house of Jacob, the Jewish people. It is not the church.

Thanks for asking.
—Dr. Mal Couch (5/11)

Is the Church Part of Israel

Dr. Couch, many amillennialists use Galatians 6:16 to prove that the church, present day believers, are part of Israel. Or, that we are now Israel. How do we answer them?

ANSWER: We answer them by thorough analysis and observation of the Scriptures. We use good hermeneutics and grammar, and history, to let the Bible speak for itself. The amills are poor scholars. They have lousy interpretative skills, if any at all!

"Israel" is a direct reference to the Jewish people. Israel is a reference to Jacob, the father of the twelve tribes. Jacob means to "grasp the heel." He was the supplanter who held back his twin brother when they were coming out of the womb. This made him the first born with all the first born privileges. Israel means "to strive with God," or the Angel of Jehovah as recorded in Genesis 32:28.

All of this has to do with Israel's history and it's not about the church! The church is never called Israel. However, we are the spiritual seed of Abraham by faith. "By faith" is the key. I am not a natural Israelite. Paul writes of those of us who are "of faith who are sons of Abraham" (Gal. 3:7). He speaks of those by promise "by faith in Jesus Christ" (v. 22). "Justified by faith" (v. 24). "You belong to Christ, then you are Abraham's seed, heirs according to promise" (v. 29).

Paul closes then with "And those who will walk by this rule, peace and mercy be upon them, and upon the Israel of God" (6:16). "Those who walk by this rule" would be the Gentiles and "upon them" would be Jews. "Israel" is never used to describe Gentiles! Paul went from one subject to another subject. "Those" and the "upon Israel." Thus, Abraham is the father of all who believe (Rom. 4:11). He is my spiritual father but not my natural father! But I am never called "Israel."

Thanks for asking.
—Dr. Mal Couch (4/11)

Salvation of the Jews

Dr. Couch, how were the Jews saved in the OT?

ANSWER: Genesis 15:6 tells us Abraham was saved by faith, or his belief in God. "Abraham believed in the Lord; and He reckoned (accounted, applied) it to him as righteousness." It was prophesied for Israel that the day would come when they would be "legally acquitted, justified" by the Messiah, and that He would "bear their iniquities" (Isa. 53:11). He would do this by pouring Himself out "to death, and would be numbered (considered) with the transgressors" (v. 12). He would substitute for the sinner. "He Himself will bear the sin of many, and intercede for the transgressors."

The object of salvation would be (1) what God had said, and then, (2) on the work of the Messiah for the sinner. Zacharias prophesied that the Messiah would "accomplish redemption for His people" (Luke 1:69). He would give to His people "the knowledge of salvation by the forgiveness of their sins" (v. 77). This was prophesied when the Jewish people were still under the dispensation of Law, and of course, it would carry over into the dispensation of Grace.

Thus, salvation was based on what God said, and it would be based on what the Messiah would do in His death. This would apply throughout history even though the Jews could not at the moment see this work in its full manifestation in ages past.

Thanks for asking.
Dr. Mal Couch (3/11)

Circumcision

Dr. Couch, what is the significance of circumcision to the Jews? Why were the servants in Abraham's house circumcised? Some use this issue to say that Gentiles should be circumcised and that it proves that the church is part of the covenant from the beginning.

ANSWER: Circumcision was a token or a sign of the Covenant God made with Abraham (Gen. 17:11) but too, the blessing of the Covenant spilled over to all who were in the household of the Jews, such as servants, whether they were Jewish or Gentiles. That is "All that is born in your house, or bought with money of any foreigner (Gentile)" (vv. 12-13). "They must needs be circumcised" (v. 13).

The Rabbis noted "Slaves reared in the patriarch's home had a feeling of attachment to their masters." This included even the child of a slave. The Rabbis noted that the Covenant extended its blessing to those who were touched by the Jews, such as the servants.

But it is a stretch to say that this becomes a type of the church being a part of the covenant automatically. The church is blessed by the New Covenant that is an extension of the Blessing aspect of the Abrahamic Covenant. But this is not because of circumcision. Those in the church today must believe in Christ. The church is not automatically a part of the Covenant. But you cannot go the opposite direction and extend the church back to the Abrahamic Covenant, thus creating one big people of faith, as some of the Covenant guys would like to do.

The blessing of the Abrahamic Covenant is not automatic. Abraham had to believe what God said in order to be justified himself (15:6).

Circumcision had two big purposes. It gave to those who were circumcised a health factor by the cutting away of the foreskin. This protected both the husband and his wife in intercourse. That cleanliness factor became a picture of cleansing in salvation, making the recipient seen as holy in God's sight. Physical circumcision is not ordered in the New Testament but there is a spiritual circumcision mentioned in Col. 2:9-13.

Thanks for asking.
Dr. Mal Couch (3/11)

Positional Sins

Dr. Couch, what is this "forgiving men their transgressions" in Matthew 6:14 all about? Can we forgive men of their Positional sins so that they can go to heaven?

ANSWER: The Sermon on the Mount (Matthew 5-7) mainly has to do with how the Jews related to each other. It is not about them possessing authority to forgive men of their sins so that they can go to heaven. The Beatitudes (vv. 3-12) that begin chapter 5 start out dealing mainly with how people treat each other. Note the down-to-earth exhortations: "Make friends quickly with your opponent at law" (5:25). "You shall love your neighbor" (5:43). "Beware of PRACTICING your righteousness before men" (6:1). "When you give alms" (6:3). "When you pray" (6:6). Christ's discussion is about PRACTICING righteousness in the Walk!

Then 6:14-15: "For if you forgive men for their transgressions [in their Walk], your heavenly Father will also forgive you [in your Walk]. But if you do not forgive men, then your Father will not forgive your transgressions [in your walk]."

This has to do with sin between men in their relationships, not about forgiveness for receiving salvation. Compare Luke 17:3-4. Forgiving comes by repentance or confession. This restores fellowship or the relationship. This is similar to 1 John 1:9. In the walk confession and forgiveness restores our fellowship. "If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteousness to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness" in our Christian walk. The walk is implied, and is clear, in the context: "IF WE SAY THAT WE HAVE NOT SINNED (in the Christian walk), we make Him a liar, and His word is not in us." This is not about our POSITION in Christ but about our WALK (EXPERIENCE) with Christ.

The same in Matthew 6:14. The passage is about the issue of fellowship with each other. By the way, note Luke 17:3-4 again. "If the brother SINS." And "If he SINS against you ..." Then IF HE REPENTS of that sin against you, you are to forgive him!

Anyone who thinks Matthew 6:14 is about getting to heaven they are confused over the salvation POSITION and the Christian living WALK in the spiritual life.

In his Matthew commentary, my old Greek teacher, Dr. Stanley Toussaint, well explained what is going on in the Sermon on the Mount: "Judicial forgiveness is not in view (Acts 10:43) but fellowship (1 John 1:5-9). It is impossible for one to be in fellowship with God as long as he harbors ill will in his heart."

Thanks for asking.
Dr. Mal Couch (1/11)

Sanctified by the Law of Moses

Dr. Couch, would we say that the Jews in the Old Testament were sanctified by the Law of Moses, if they kept it? ANSWER:  I don't think so. Looking up all the words for "sanctification" in the OT, we do not find that idea mentioned. The Lord says the seventh day of the week is to be sanctified, He is sanctified in Israel, the sons of Israel would be sanctified, but the work of the Law in sanctifying Israel is not mentioned.    In Hebrew, the word "sanctify" and its related words, is Ko'desh. It means "to be holy," "to set something aside," thus making it unique or special.    In the NT there is Positional Sanctification that takes place when one accepts Christ as Savior. And then there is Progressive Sanctification, in both the OT and the NT, that is, we are to become more and more sanctified as we grow or mature. This was to be true for both the Jews in the OT and for the Christians in the NT.    The OT Jews were told "Be sanctified" or "Be holy; for I am holy" (Lev. 11:44), and for Christians in the NT (and quoting Leviticus 11:44), we read "Be holy, for I am holy" (1 Pet. 1:15-16).    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch  (1/11)

How are the Jews Saved?

Dr. Couch, I heard of a view that says the Jews were saved by being obedient to the Law, and that they were saved when they were brought out of Egypt; they acted in a way worthy of their high calling of Law-keeping! How are the Jews saved? ANSWER: They are saved by personal faith just as Gentiles. There is a national redemption in that the nation was to keep the Law as a whole but in the final analysis, they each must believe in what God said to them, trusting Him, in order to be justified. "Abraham believed God and (his belief) was counted to him as righteousness" (Gen. 15:6). All Jews afterwards were saved in the same way. We could probably go to hundreds of verses that would show Jews are saved by faith but here are a few. For example Acts 15 and the Jerusalem Council Peter said: "God made no distinction between us (Jews) and them (the Gentiles), cleansing their hearts by faith. … But we believe that we are saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, IN THE SAME WAY AS THEY ALSO ARE" (vv. 9, 11). See also Romans 10:1-14 which is written to the Jews. "For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes. … But the righteousness based on faith speaks thus, ..." (vv. 4, 6). "The Scripture says, 'Whoever believes in Him will not be disappointed" (v. 11). "Salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Gentile" (Rom. 1:16). "He saved us not on the basis of works which we have done (by means) of righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of the 'again birthing' and the 'remaking' done by the Holy Spirit" (Titus 3:5). This is applicable not only for Gentiles but for Jews also! Thanks for asking. Dr. Mal Couch (1/11)

Real and True Jews

Dr. Couch, what is a "real" or "true" Jew, as mentioned by some translations (such as the RSV) on Romans 2:28-29?  It would seem to me that a Jew is a Jew, and all Jews would be real or true by birth. ANSWER:  The translators of the NAS do not add the words "real" or "true" to the passage. It simply reads: "But he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that which is of the heart, by the Spirit, not be the letter; and his praise is not from men, but from God."    The amillennial and covenant theologians wrongly think that Paul is saying that God is finished with the Jews as a people. But, they argue, that Gentiles are now Jews in spirit and have replaced Israel as the people of God.    But they completely miss Paul's point. This entire section begins with verse 17 where we see Paul is addressing the Jewish people. He starts off: "But if you bear the name Jew, and rely upon the Law and boast in God, ..." Paul continues the "You Jews ..." through almost the entire section. "You who boast in the Law ..." "Circumcision is of value, if you ..." Paul continues his argument though he changes to the third person from verses 27-29, but his point is the same.    The Jews were trying to say they were favored with God simply because they were Jews by birth. This is not true. They had to be "believing Jews," as Jews who were trusting in God, and, who were embracing Christ when they realized that He was their Messiah, and that He had died for their sins. Otherwise, simply being a Jew by birth, and being circumcised as a Jew, meant nothing!    Circumcision was of value if they kept the Law. If they did not keep the Law, but were transgressors, then "your circumcision meant nothing … it became uncircumcision" (v. 25). The physical Jew had to be a believing Jew, "one inwardly" (v. 29) and one who was circumcised in the heart not simply outwardly.    God still has promises and plans for the physical Jew, the one who is of the generation of Jews. But too, they had to be believing Jews, if not, they were not saved. There are still advantages for the people of Israel (3:1-2) but if they do not trust God "their unbelief will not nullify the faithfulness of God, will it?" (v. 3).  No, of course not! "May it never be!" (v. 4).    Paul makes an important and final point on the subject in 11:28. "From the standpoint of the gospel they (the Jews) are enemies (the Jews) for your sake (the Gentiles), but from the standpoint of God's choice (His election) they (the Jews) are beloved (in His eyes) for the sake of the (Patriarchal) fathers (Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob); for the gifts (of God) and (His) calling (His election) are irrevocable (unchangeable)."    God has called forth the Jews for His purposes and He will not go back on His promises!    Woodrow Kroll adds:    "Paul says that two things are necessary to be truly Jewish: (1) to be born of Abraham through Isaac (that circumcision that is outward in the flesh); and (2) to be spiritually in tune with Abraham's God (that circumcision that is inward in the heart or spirit). As the apostle Paul is using the word, no one can claim to be Jewish who is not born of Abraham through his son Isaac. But to the requirement of the circumcision of the heart. … The only true Jew is one who is a Jew by race and a believer by God's grace. Thus Paul concludes that mere physical birth alone cannot make a Jew righteous." (Mal Couch, gen. ed. The Book of Romans. Woodrow Kroll. AMG, 35-36)    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (12/10)