“To be IN Christ”

Dr. Couch, what does it mean “To be IN Christ?”

ANSWER: The Greek preposition IN (en, “to be in [en] Christ”) is used in Paul's letters 164 times. And the same expression is used by John in the Upper Room Discourse 12 times. This expression is real but it is also a mystical expression that may be difficult to fully describe. The great Greek scholar Deissmann says this of the preposition en and the expression “To be in Christ”:

There cannot be any doubt that “Christ in me” means the exalted Christ living in Paul … and Paul in Christ. Christ, the exalted Christ is Spirit. Therefore, He can live in Paul and Paul in Him.” A. T. Robertson adds: “This mystic relation is likened to the air that is in us and yet we are in it.”

Thanks for asking.
 -- Dr. Mal Couch (6/12)

Acts 2:38

Dr. Couch, what is going on in Acts 2:38?

ANSWER: First of all, everything said in that verse is applicable to the Jews as well as to the Gentiles. It is about the church and not simply for Israel alone. As well, you cannot translate the passage without knowing the Greek language. That is why I have taken more Greek courses than anyone you will ever know. I have almost 60 hours of graduate Greek. This is important to understanding the doctrinal issues in the NT.

If Peter had given that verse in English he would have received a grade of F. You must understand how Greek grammar works.

In the verse you have a mixture of singulars and plurals. We don't mix singulars and plurals in English grammar but it was accepted in Greek. Here's how the verse reads in the grammar of Greek:

• "All of you (plural) repent (Aorist T.) for the forgiveness of (all of your sins, plural) …
• and all of you (plural) shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. Then let each one of you (singular)
• be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ."

Repentance brings about forgiveness of sins and the receiving of the Holy Spirit. Then after they have repented and received forgiveness, the individual is to be baptized in water as a sign of their being washed which is a sign of their salvation.

In this, all the plurals are kept together and the singular is kept separate as well.

The Jerusalem congregation is mentioned in Acts 5 and it is called a "church" (v. 11). And it is called again the Jerusalem church in 8:1-3. Some wrongly attempt to say that the church did not begin until chapter 9. When I showed these verses to one who held that false view, he dropped his mistaken idea.

The great scholar Nicoll points out that at that time Baptism was the sign of the admission into the visible church, whether Jew or Gentile.

The great grammarian A.T. Robertson agrees and writes:

"Change of number from plural to singular and of person from second to third. This change marks a break in the thought here that the English translation does not preserve. The first thing to do is make a radical and complete change of heart and life. Then let each one be baptized after this change has taken place, and the act of baptism be performed 'in the name of Jesus Christ.'"

Thanks for asking.
--Dr. Mal Couch (4/12)

Ephesians 4

Dr. Couch, what is going on in Ephesians 4:7-on? And especially with verse 8 about Christ ascending and giving gifts to the captives? ANSWER: The apostle Paul reaches back to Psalm 68:18 and brings a verse forward that illustrates a victorious general who sets the captives free after a battle and then bestows upon them gifts. Ephesians 4:8 (quoting Psa. 68:18) reads: "When He ascended on high, He led captive a host of captives, and He gave gifts to men." The apostle then writes that Christ came to earth (He descended into the lower parts of the earth) and then returned far above into the heavens, "that He might fill [or be in charge] of all things." A.T. Robertson argues that Christ's Descending refers to His Incarnation when He came down "to the earth." This is a genitive of Apposition: Or, "He came down in reference to the earth." He then bestowed gifts to those in the church. Verse 7 better reads: "To each one of us (in the church) 'was gifted' according to the measure of Christ's gifts." I wrote in my nationally published commentary on Galatians-Ephesians (AMG) that "The apostle Paul is arguing in the strongest manner for the deity, sovereignty, and preeminence of Christ as God the Son. No one can look carefully at these verses and deny this fact." Christ then gave gifts to the spiritual body of believers. He gave four offices to the church, not five as the ignorant Charismatics often argue. To the church He gave (1) apostles, (2) prophets (not telling the future but as teachers), (3) evangelists, (4) and pastors INDEED, THAT IS teachers. The "and" (kai) is making these two positions relating. These gifted individuals are to build up the body of Christ: "Until all attain to the unity of the faith, and of the knowledge of the Son of God" (v. 13). Psalm 68:18 is a hymn of victory in which God is praised for victory and deliverance. It is freely adapted by Paul, who regards its substance rather than its letter, and uses it as an expression of the divine triumph as fulfilled in Christ's victory over death and sin.—Vincent We cannot do Bible study without knowledge of the Greek text or without good commentary material to help those who are deficient be able to see what is happening in the text. Thanks for asking. Dr. Mal Couch (10/10)

The Sick Will be Healed

Dr. Couch, what about James 5:15-16!  Some say that this guarantees that the sick will be healed. What do you say? ANSWER:  The final focus of these two verses has to do with sin, though the sickness is certainly mentioned. Many believe James is focusing on that fact that the sin brought about the illness and the confession is what brings restitution and recovery.    The great Greek scholar A. T. Robertson believes this and writes: "Supposing that the sick one has committed sins as many sick people have, ... it shall be forgiven him." "His sickness has been healed, but not without change of heart and turning to God through Christ." However, he adds, "Much is assumed here that IS NOT EXPRESSED." "Confession of sin to God is already assumed. ... Confession to the pastor without confessing to God is with little benefit."    Davids adds: "Verse 15 connects the possibility of sin to the illness. Such a concept was not unknown in the NT. And it was well known in Judaism. The Perfect Tense ("is he has committed ...") indicates POSSIBILITY, showing that the person has not been forgiven and so is in a state of guilt. The person would do well to follow the rabbinic advice and examine himself. Should sin be the cause, the healing for which the elders pray will not end with the body. There are two promises: one for the body and one for the soul."    The great John Gill points out how Jewish this passage is. He writes: "The Jews have had formerly a great notion of prayer; the power of prayer, they say, is strong; and extol it above all other services. It is better than good works, or than offerings and sacrifice, and particularly the prayer of a righteous man, says Rabbi Eliazar. The prayer of a righteous man is like a shovel; the sense is that the shovel turns the corn on the floor from one corner to the other. Prayer turns holy blessings from God from wrath to mercy."    Verse 15 seems clearly to be connecting prayer and illness together. This is important in understanding the passage.    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch  (Feb., 10)

God's Sovereignty at Work in the Believer

Dr. Couch, what is going on in Philippians 2:13? It sounds like the absolute sovereignty of God working in the believer! Is this right? ANSWER:  You're right! That is what is going on! The believer is not a robot and yet, God is absolutely sovereign. Nothing happens with us without His working and causing us to be willing and then to be working in regard to His good pleasure! The Greek text reads:    "Be continually working intently your salvation with fear and trembling; for God is the One continually working in you the to be willing and the to be working concerning the good pleasure [of Him]" (Phil. 2:12b-13).    Notice the Present Tenses in the verse. Nicoll points out that there is no conflict with Divine sovereignty and human responsibility. But guess which one dominates? God's sovereignty. His work causes all things to be!    A.T. Robertson is stronger on the passage. "God is the Energy and the Energizer of the universe. ... God is back of all activity in nature." "Both the willing and the working (the energizing). God does it all, then. The will of God is behind gravitation and all the laws of nature."     As I used to ask my students: "Who is in charge?" And, "Who do we think we are?"    Ellicott goes further: "The word 'works in you' is constantly applied to the divine operation in the soul, ... to do the action of men. It must necessarily extend to the will as well as the action; otherwise God would not be sovereign in the inner realm of mind. Hence, while we cannot even conceive the existence of freedom under an unbending impersonal law or force, the harmony of our will with a Supreme Personal Will (God's) is mysterious, indeed."    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch