An Early Reference to the Church

Dr. Couch, is John 10:16 an early reference to the church?

ANSWER: The passage reads: "I have other sheep which are not of this fold; I must bring them also, and they shall hear My voice; and they shall become one flock with one shepherd."

This is very possibly a beginning reference to the church which consists of Jew and Gentile together in one body. See Ephesians 2:11-3:21. However, Christ could be talking about the Jews who were standing around Him at the time. In other words, the "other sheep" are Jews who were not there at that moment. I lean toward this for the following reason:

The "Good Shepherd" reference is about God and is found in Ezekiel 34:11-24. In this passage the Lord God is the Shepherd and Israel is the Flock (v. 12). Christ is therefore claiming to be the Good Shepherd of Ezekiel 34! There is no other "outside" flock in the passage that could be referring to Gentiles. And, king David will be the shepherd (God's servant) over them (vv. 23-24). Too, David will be the Prince among them, that is, among the Jews (v. 24). Read thoroughly the Ezekiel passage.

When we read the Word of God we must read carefully and slowly. Observe, observe, observe!

Thanks for asking.
—Dr. Mal Couch (5/11)

How are the Jews Saved?

Dr. Couch, I heard of a view that says the Jews were saved by being obedient to the Law, and that they were saved when they were brought out of Egypt; they acted in a way worthy of their high calling of Law-keeping! How are the Jews saved? ANSWER: They are saved by personal faith just as Gentiles. There is a national redemption in that the nation was to keep the Law as a whole but in the final analysis, they each must believe in what God said to them, trusting Him, in order to be justified. "Abraham believed God and (his belief) was counted to him as righteousness" (Gen. 15:6). All Jews afterwards were saved in the same way. We could probably go to hundreds of verses that would show Jews are saved by faith but here are a few. For example Acts 15 and the Jerusalem Council Peter said: "God made no distinction between us (Jews) and them (the Gentiles), cleansing their hearts by faith. … But we believe that we are saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, IN THE SAME WAY AS THEY ALSO ARE" (vv. 9, 11). See also Romans 10:1-14 which is written to the Jews. "For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes. … But the righteousness based on faith speaks thus, ..." (vv. 4, 6). "The Scripture says, 'Whoever believes in Him will not be disappointed" (v. 11). "Salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Gentile" (Rom. 1:16). "He saved us not on the basis of works which we have done (by means) of righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of the 'again birthing' and the 'remaking' done by the Holy Spirit" (Titus 3:5). This is applicable not only for Gentiles but for Jews also! Thanks for asking. Dr. Mal Couch (1/11)

Real and True Jews

Dr. Couch, what is a "real" or "true" Jew, as mentioned by some translations (such as the RSV) on Romans 2:28-29?  It would seem to me that a Jew is a Jew, and all Jews would be real or true by birth. ANSWER:  The translators of the NAS do not add the words "real" or "true" to the passage. It simply reads: "But he is a Jew who is one inwardly; and circumcision is that which is of the heart, by the Spirit, not be the letter; and his praise is not from men, but from God."    The amillennial and covenant theologians wrongly think that Paul is saying that God is finished with the Jews as a people. But, they argue, that Gentiles are now Jews in spirit and have replaced Israel as the people of God.    But they completely miss Paul's point. This entire section begins with verse 17 where we see Paul is addressing the Jewish people. He starts off: "But if you bear the name Jew, and rely upon the Law and boast in God, ..." Paul continues the "You Jews ..." through almost the entire section. "You who boast in the Law ..." "Circumcision is of value, if you ..." Paul continues his argument though he changes to the third person from verses 27-29, but his point is the same.    The Jews were trying to say they were favored with God simply because they were Jews by birth. This is not true. They had to be "believing Jews," as Jews who were trusting in God, and, who were embracing Christ when they realized that He was their Messiah, and that He had died for their sins. Otherwise, simply being a Jew by birth, and being circumcised as a Jew, meant nothing!    Circumcision was of value if they kept the Law. If they did not keep the Law, but were transgressors, then "your circumcision meant nothing … it became uncircumcision" (v. 25). The physical Jew had to be a believing Jew, "one inwardly" (v. 29) and one who was circumcised in the heart not simply outwardly.    God still has promises and plans for the physical Jew, the one who is of the generation of Jews. But too, they had to be believing Jews, if not, they were not saved. There are still advantages for the people of Israel (3:1-2) but if they do not trust God "their unbelief will not nullify the faithfulness of God, will it?" (v. 3).  No, of course not! "May it never be!" (v. 4).    Paul makes an important and final point on the subject in 11:28. "From the standpoint of the gospel they (the Jews) are enemies (the Jews) for your sake (the Gentiles), but from the standpoint of God's choice (His election) they (the Jews) are beloved (in His eyes) for the sake of the (Patriarchal) fathers (Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob); for the gifts (of God) and (His) calling (His election) are irrevocable (unchangeable)."    God has called forth the Jews for His purposes and He will not go back on His promises!    Woodrow Kroll adds:    "Paul says that two things are necessary to be truly Jewish: (1) to be born of Abraham through Isaac (that circumcision that is outward in the flesh); and (2) to be spiritually in tune with Abraham's God (that circumcision that is inward in the heart or spirit). As the apostle Paul is using the word, no one can claim to be Jewish who is not born of Abraham through his son Isaac. But to the requirement of the circumcision of the heart. … The only true Jew is one who is a Jew by race and a believer by God's grace. Thus Paul concludes that mere physical birth alone cannot make a Jew righteous." (Mal Couch, gen. ed. The Book of Romans. Woodrow Kroll. AMG, 35-36)    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (12/10)

Jewish People in Christ's day and the rapture

Dr. Couch, I have two questions: The Jews who accepted Christ when He was ministering, as shown in the Gospels, would they have become part of the church and then been raptured if that event had taken place? And, I was disappointed to hear you say that the book of John was written to the Gentiles. I understood it was written to the Jews with information for Christians today. What do you say? ANSWER:  All of those who came to Christ during His ministry on earth were placed into His spiritual body, the body of Christ, thus they became part of the church at Pentecost with the outpouring of the Holy Spirit. And yes, of course, they would have been raptured.    You said you were disappointed that I said the book of John was written for Gentiles, and not for the Jews. You need not listen to me but study for yourself what the book of John shows us. First of all, I have translated the entire book of John in Greek, and in graduate school had several courses on that book. You won't find any other scholars who have had that much exposure and study in John. So I know what I'm talking about, but as I say, study the book yourself.    The way we know it was written to Gentiles is because of the many passages where words are translated for a Gentile audience to understand. For example:    "The Law was given through Moses ..." (John 1:17) The Jews knew this; Gentiles may not have.    "The word Rabbi means Teacher ..." (1:38).    "Messiah (Maschioch) is translated as the Christ (Christos) ..." (1:41).    "Cephas which is translated as Peter ..." (1:42).    "Siloam which is translated as Sent ..." (9:7).    "In Hebrew, Rabboni which means Teacher ..." (20:16).    "The ravine of Kidron, where there was a garden ..." (18:1). Most Jews knew this.    The Greek word "translate" is a word that means "to expound, explain, interpret, to translate from a foreign tongue." It comes from the Greek word "Hermes" who was the god of language, speech, writing, and eloquence. The word was transferred into the Greek language meaning to "interpret."    Because the book was aimed at the Gentiles does not mean that the Jews were excluded from reading it. They were not. Also, remember that old John in his late life was the pastor of the church at Ephesus, thus it would make sense that he would write a book that his Gentile audience could understand.    I studied the book of John in Greek at the university 51 years ago, and then again (in Greek) 49 years ago. Then I took it in English Bible in graduate school about 50 years ago. I've been around the block with the book of John!    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (10/11)

Death in the Millennium

Dr. Couch, I have several questions: What about death in the millennium? And, what about the Zadok priests not being able to marry a widow of a priest who has died? (Could this be referring to the widow's husband who dies during the tribulation?) Too, the priests of Zadok are not supposed to touch a dead body in the kingdom. Does this mean that there will be no death in the kingdom, as some say, death only with the Gentiles and not the believing Jews? ANSWER:  As you noted, some say that death comes only for the Gentiles in the kingdom and not the Jews. The question: if this "saved" Gentiles or "unsaved" Gentiles? The passage we go to is Isaiah 65:17-23. There it says that concerning the Jews that an infant [who is sick] will live more than a few days (v. 20). And an "old man who [will live beyond his] days, for the youth will die at the age of one hundred" (v. 20b). And, "the one who does not reach the age of one hundred shall be thought accursed" (v. 20c).    There is a textual problem in verse 20. Some texts read: "But the sinner who does not reach the age of one hundred." "The sinner" is not in all the Hebrew texts. It is not in the NAS.    However, Unger notes: "'Accursed' shall be considered under the curse of sin, which is death. This passage clearly reveals that the curse will not be completely removed, for death will not be destroyed or sin removed till after the Millennium (1 Cor. 15:26; Rev. 20:11-15), precluding the sinless, curseless eternal state (21:8, 27: 22:15)."    The teacher you quoted often reaches too far and goes sometimes to the extreme!     Unger again writes: "The priest is not to marry a widow or a divorcee, but an unmarried woman or the widow of a priest. Strict sanctity of life for ministry for God in the kingdom temple will be stressed in accord with all other details of the Temple's construction and the ministry of its personnel in the coming age of righteousness and worldwide peace (Isa. 11:9; cf. 2:3)."    Ezekiel 44:25 says that the priests of Zadok are not to touch a dead body during the millennium. One teacher says this is talking about the death of a Gentile only. I do not hold to this view because of what I mentioned above. There is still death in the kingdom for all because death is not eradicated until the eternal state. The teacher you mentioned is trying to use Jeremiah 31:31-34 and Isaiah 65:19 to say that there will be death only for Gentiles and not the Jews, but again, I think this is a too far reach to make a point that does not need to be made! Death will be curbed but not eradicated.    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (10/11)

Audience of 1 Peter

Dr. Couch, to whom is the book of 1 Peter written? Some say it is written to the Gentiles though the first verse says "to the alien scattered." ANSWER:  The book is clearly written to the Jewish "diaspora," that is the Greek of the word "scattered." The word "alien" means "the strangers." This is how the Jews were described who were driven out of Israel. In the case of verse 1, it is speaking about the Jewish believers who were part of the diaspora. The word diaspora is two words: dia=through, thoroughly, and spora=seed. "To scatter the seed" is the way it described the scattered Jews.    2:12 also proves that Peter is writing to the scattered believing Jews. The verse reads: "Keep your behavior excellent among the Gentiles," proving that Peter's audience is not Gentile but Jewish. The answer to your question is really simple. I don't know how anyone came up with the idea that the audience was Gentiles!    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (8/10)

Mystery

Dr. Couch, is the "mystery" of 1 Corinthians 2:7 the same as the "mystery" of Ephesians 3:1-7? ANSWER:  No, it does not seem to be the same. The "mystery" (musterion) of Ephesians 3 is about the fact that the Gentiles will be blessed by the gospel. Paul says this mystery was specifically made know to him alone. It was "the mystery of Christ which in other generations was not made known to the sons of men, but now 'specifically' it is that the Gentiles are [now] fellow heirs and fellow members of the body, and fellow partakers of the promise in Christ Jesus through the gospel" (vv. 5-6). It is the "mystery according to the gift of God's grace which was given (or revealed) to me according to the working of His power" (v. 7).    The mystery of 1 Corinthians 2:7 seems to be specifically about the gospel not just about God's working with the church. Here, the mystery is God's hidden wisdom "which God predestined before the ages to our glory" (v. 7). The Bible Knowledge Commentary says: "The message which Paul proclaimed was God's revelation (Matt. 11:25). At the heart of this wisdom is the plan of salvation intended for our glory, determined before time began (Eph. 1:4)."    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (8/10)

Who Are "We"?

Dr. Couch, Who are the 'we' in Romans 1:5? ANSWER:  The "we" would possibly be the apostles but it could also include the church saints to whom Paul is writing. Note verse 6 where he writes "among whom YOU ALSO (the church saints) are the called of Jesus Christ." The larger body of church saints are added to the "through whom we (the apostles) have received grace and apostleship to bring about the obedience of faith among all the Gentiles for His name's sake" (v. 5).    Paul then adds, "To all who are beloved of God in Rome, called as saints ..." (v. 7).    Good question; thanks for asking.    --Dr. Mal Couch (8/10)

Who is Christ Referring to in Matthew 21:43?

Dr. Couch, what nation is Christ speaking about in Matthew 21:43? Some say this is the church; some say it is referring to the Jews of another generation. What do you say? ANSWER:  The passage reads: "I say to you, the kingdom of God will be taken away from you (the Jews of that generation), and be given to a nation producing the fruit of it."    We interpret by observation, observation, observation.    And we observe that Christ is speaking about the "kingdom of God." We know by an undisputed fact that every time "the kingdom of God" and "the kingdom of heaven" is mentioned it is referring to the millennial kingdom of Christ that is yet to come. And that millennial kingdom is the messianic rule of the Son of David sitting on His throne in Jerusalem.    In the verse before (v. 42) Jesus quotes Psalm 118:22 about "the stone which the builders rejected." Those verses in Psalm 118 are talking about Israel and about the "festival sacrifices" and the altar where sacrifices are offered. There is nothing here about the church!    Matthew 21:43 ties into Psalm 118 and Christ starts the verse with "Therefore ..." He is drawing a conclusion about how "The builders," the Jews in Christ's day are to someday be replaced by that other nation. Those who argue that this "nation" is the church quote 1 Peter 2:9-10 and Romans 10:19 and claim that in these passages the church is called "a nation." The Romans passage where "nation" and "people" are mentioned is a quote from Deuteronomy 32:21. This could certainly be a reference to the Gentiles but that is a long stretch to the idea of the church. The church is "the called out" ones (mainly but not exclusively) Gentiles. And to say that God will make Israel jealous by the Gentiles coming to the Lord is still not calling this group of Gentiles the church!    In 1 Peter, the apostle Peter is writing to one segment of the church, the Jews, to those who "are aliens" (or strangers), the Jews who are in the Diaspora (the scattered ones), the Jews who were driven from the Holy Land (1:1). In 1 Peter 2:9 Peter calls these believing Jews "a chosen race, a royal priesthood, a holy nation, a people for God's own possession." He is compiling several OT passages about the nation of Israel. He says of them that they "were not a people, but now you are the people of God" (v. 10). Now, as Jews, they are "to keep their behavior excellent among the Gentiles" (v. 11). This puts those Peter is writing to in opposition to the Gentile believers, members of the church.    To conclude: Peter is not saying this nation is the church! Neither is Christ saying that in Matthew 21:43!    So the other nation is a later generation of Jews to whom the kingdom of God will be given. Again, the "kingdom of God" is always the Jewish messianic future kingdom; it never is the church!    When interpreting the Bible, keep the lines straight. Don't mix concepts together in order to make a preconceived point. Let the Bible speak for itself.    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (Feb., 10)

Is the Church Being Placed into the 'Natural' Branches?

Dr. Couch, in Romans 11:13-25, is the church, the Gentiles, being placed into the natural branches, Israel? I hear confusing things about this passage. ANSWER:  Of course not! And that is dumb, de dumb, dumb! It is the sorry view of the covenant guys who do not have the ability to read! Remember, they want what they want, when they wants it! They have a theological agenda, and they do not allow the Bible to speak for itself!    From the root or trunk of blessing, the Jews who were the natural branches, were broken off, and the Gentiles, who were the wild olive branches were grafted into the place of blessing (vv. 19-20). The natural branches were broken off because of unbelief. The wild olive branches, the Gentiles, were grafted in to the place of blessing, the root.    But someday, the wild olive branches will be broken off from the place of blessing. "For if God did not spare the natural branches, neither will He spare you (Gentiles), or leave you in the place of blessing" (v. 21). The Jews, the natural branches, will also "if they do not continue in their unbelief, be grafted back in (to the root of blessing); for God is able to graft them in again" (v. 23).     The Gentiles who come from a wild olive tree, "were grafted in contrary to nature into a cultivated olive tree, how much more shall these (Jews) who are the natural branches be grafted into their own olive tree?" (v. 24). You Gentiles, "do not be wise in your own estimation, that a partial hardening has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in" (v. 25).    The root or the natural tree trunk represents a place of blessing. It does not represent Israel. It is not Israel being a natural branch "of Israel." That does not make sense. Israel, the Jews, were by nature part of the natural olive tree, but were cut out because of unbelief, and, the wild olive branch, the Gentiles, were grafted into their place to receive the sap of blessing, whereby they received for a time salvation. The Jews will someday be put back in their rightful place, and the Gentiles, the church, will lose its place of blessing.    I do not know how much more clear this can be! But the covenant guys want the church to somehow be Israel. That won't work! They need to learn how to read!    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch

Is The Abrahamic Covenant For Both Jews and Gentiles?

Dr. Couch, I have friends that believe the entire Abrahamic Covenant is for both the Jews and the Church (Gentiles). They use Genesis 17:4-5 and Romans 4:18 where Paul quotes Genesis 15:5. How do you answer?

ANSWER: Genesis 17:4-5 reads: "As for Me, behold, My covenant is with you. And you shall be the father of a multitude of nations. … I will make you the father of a multitude of nations." Paul quotes this in Romans 4:18: "[Abraham] believed in order that he might become a father of many nations according to that which had been spoken, 'So shall you descendants (seed) be.'" In the last part of the verse Paul is quoting Genesis 15:5.

The argument is that since the Gentiles are Abraham's children spiritually speaking, they too inherit the land promises. But that will not fly!

The Gentiles get in on the "blessing" aspect of the Abraham Covenant as shown in Genesis 12:3: "And in you all the families of the earth shall be blessed." But the land is not promised to the church or to Gentiles. First of all, this covenant is God's covenant ("My covenant," 17:4) made with Abraham and his descendants (physical seed, v. 7). Gentiles get in on the blessing aspect of the Abrahamic Covenant by faith not by being of the physical seed of Abraham. Paul writes "Also to those who are of the faith of Abraham, who is the father of us all" (Rom. 4:16b). "Be sure that it is those who are of the faith who are sons of Abraham" (Gal. 3:7). "Those who are of faith are blessed with Abraham, the believer" (v. 9). And, "In Christ Jesus the blessing of Abraham might come to the Gentiles, so that we might receive the promise of the Spirit through faith" (v. 14).

The land promises come only to the physical descendants of Abraham. The Lord said this to Abraham five times in Genesis 17:6-10. The after you in these verses is a reference to his physical progeny or descendants through the flesh. And that has to do with Isaac and not with Ishmael as said to Abraham: With Sarah's son, "you shall call his name Isaac; and I will establish My covenant with him for an everlasting covenant, for his descendants after him" (v. 19).

1. "I will establish My covenant between Me and you and your descendants (seed) after you throughout their generations for an everlasting covenant, to be God to you and to your descendants after you" (v. 7).
2. "I will give to you and to your descendants after you the land of your sojourning, all the land of Canaan, for an everlasting possession; and I will be their God" (v. 8).
3. "This is My covenant, which you shall keep between Me and you and your descendants after you; every male among you shall be circumcised" (v. 10).

Gentiles nor the church receive the land promises. End of discussion!

Thanks for asking.
Dr. Mal Couch

Provoke the Jews to Jealousy?

Dr. Couch, what does it mean when the Bible says Gentiles are to provoke the Jews to jealousy? 

 

    The Greek word zaloo carries the idea of “jealousy” in the sense of being envious over someone’s possessions. “I envy him for having a new car.” Or, it can often be translated as “anger.” “What you did to me made me ‘jealous’ and ‘angry.’” But the expression “being provoked to jealousy,” as in provoking the Jews to jealousy, is a related Greek word but not the same one. It is a compound from parazeeloo. Para=alongside; zaloo=envy, anger. This word is used in only four places in the NT: (Rom. 10:19; 11:11, 14; 1 Cor. 10:22) 

    In 1 Corinthians 10:22 it is used of the fact that some in the Corinthian church were abusing the Lord’s Table and making God the Father angry. “Or do we provoke the Lord to anger? We are not stronger than He, are we?” That is, “the Lord is furious and we are not going to escape a judgment from Him over this issue!” 

    In Romans 10:19 the apostle Paul quotes Deuteronomy 32:21 where the Lord says, “I will make you jealous (angry, parazeeloo) by that which is not a nation (the Gentiles), by a nation without understanding will I anger (parorgio) you (Israel).” Two different words are used here in a parallelism but both mean virtually the same—to make angry in order to move the Jews off dead center, spiritually speaking! 

    The apostle uses parazeeloo again in Romans 11:11, 14. In the grammar in 11:11 he uses the word as an Aorist Infinitive. “To make them angry.” In 11:14 he uses the word as a Future, or as an Aorist tense. “I will in the future move my fellow countrymen to anger and save some of them.” Thayer believes the word should be translated this way: “To provoke to rivalry, to anger.” The word is used in a similar way in Classical Greek: “To fret, be vexed.” Balz and Schneider add: “To rouse up, provoke.” 

    Paul’s point seems to be that when the gospel is proclaimed about salvation found only in Israel’s Messiah, that this moves the Jews to have a flash of anger. They resent that message. They were not jealous in an envious way, but they were furious! However this anger would cause them to begin to think, probe, and seek out the truth. In time, they would accept Christ as their own, as their Savior and King! 

    Ellicott concurs and writes: “The reason why salvation had been extended to the Gentiles was to stir up the Jews to emulation. Their privileged position had made them negligent and apathetic. The sight of others stepping into those privileges was to rouse them from their apathy.” (p. 248) 

    The idea of anger seems to make the use of the word more clear. The Jews at first became incensed with the salvation proclamation being made by the Gentiles. After all, the gospel was about this Jew, the Lord Jesus Christ, who claimed to be the promised Jewish Messiah! With a tinge of anger, many of the Jews searched out this claim and came to Him as their Savior and Lord! 

Thanks for asking.

Dr. Mal Couch

What Is The Meaning of Matthew 21:43, "...the Kingdom of God will be taken from you..."?

Dr. Couch, we know the kingdom of God is promised to Israel, and since the church is not the "new Israel" nor the kingdom, what is the meaning of Matthew 21:43 that reads: "I say to you (the Pharisees), the kingdom of God will be taken from you and given to another nation (ethnos) producing the fruit of it"? 

 

   ANSWER: In the NT the overwhelming use of the word ethnos is used in the plural and is generally translated "Gentiles," though sometimes "nations." Or, a few times in the singular "the heathen." Some wrongly have tried to use Peter's words in 1 Peter 2:9-10 to say in these verses he is calling the church "a new" kind of nation. But if o­ne examines closely this passage, this could not be. Peter is writing to Jewish Christians, those among the diaspora or who are residing as "the aliens," "the scattered" among the Gentile Greeks (1:1). Peter then applies Isaiah 61:4-6 and Deuteronomy 10:15 to these new Jewish Christians, because they are now, even in the church, recipients of the blessings of the new covenant. Peter writes

"But you are a chosen race, a royal priesthood, a holy nation (ethnos, singular), a people for God's own possession, that you may proclaim the excellencies of Him who has called you out of darkness into His marvelous light; for you o­nce were not a people, but now you are the people of God; you had not received mercy, but now you have received mercy."

    Peter's point is that their generation was rejected because they rejected their own Messiah, but these he is writing to have received mercy and accepted Christ as their Savior. While they are part of the body of Christ, they are also "fulfilled" or completed Jews, fulfilling the purpose God intended for this people, because they have accepted their Messiah! Since the Lord Jesus in Matthew 21:43 is talking about "the kingdom of God" (that is without question distinctly messianic and not the church) that will be taken away from that present generation of Jews and "give to a nation" that will produce fruit, He more than likely is talking about a future generation of Jews, a new and different nation, and not the generation that is standing before Him. This would be the Jews who enter the messianic kingdom when He returns to earth to rule and reign! The Pharisees got it! They knew He was talking about their rejection of Him (v. 45) and they realized that the people knew He was a predictive prophet (v. 46). Since the "kingdom of God" will be an earthly spiritual nation of the Jewish people on earth, the parallel to "kingdom of God" would be "another" nation "equal" to the kingdom of God! (If that makes sense!) It is admitted by all that this is an obscure and not-so-clear verse. And one of the most important rules of good hermeneutics is that you do not establish a doctrine by an obscure or difficult passage of Scripture. I do not have to "fight" over the meaning of Matthew 21:43 in order to uphold the ideal of a literal earthly kingdom yet to come. I have hundreds if not thousands of both OT and NT verses to show that this is yet future. And too, I take the clear meaning of these many, many verses to heart, while the amillennial allegorists have to put into the texts their allegorical interpretations. 

Prophecy scholar Dr. Walvoord writes on this verse: "This should not be construed as a turning away from Israel to the Gentiles." 

 Dr. Toussaint writes: "The 'kingdom of God' always refers to the future millennial kingdom o­n earth." 

 Dr. Gaebelein (a use-to-be allegorist) says: "The nation is Israel still, but [this passage is about] that believing remnant of the nation, living when the Lord comes." 

    I hope this helps and thanks for asking.

   Dr. Mal Couch,

What About Messianic Assemblies?

Dr. Couch, I noticed that Miles J. Stanford’s website mentioned that he is opposed to Messianic Judaism/Hebrew Christianity. I know he was a dispensationalist, so why would he be opposing Messianic assemblies? 

 

    ANSWER: Many Messianic assemblies isolate themselves from the complete body of Christ which would of course include Gentiles believers. Some also want to go back to the Law. Some “almost” oppose salvation by grace alone, and place themselves into legalism. Dr. Arnold Fruchtenbaum is also concerned about this and is working hard to help these assemblies be truly dispensational/biblical. Practicing certain Jewish ceremonies and honoring their Jewish tradition is not the problem. But turning such practices into a legalism is a problem. 

   I do not know all of Stanford’s objections, so I am giving you what I think, and more than likely, this is what he also had in mind. Fruchtenbaum remarks that many assemblies are not very biblically astute and are not well theologically trained. Some almost look down at Gentile churches and Gentile Christians. Unfortunately, many Gentile Christians do not absorb well Jews into their church fellowship. And of course this is certainly wrong. And unfortunately for us all, cultural and social differences can divide though this is not supposed to be. 

   Thanks for asking,

   Dr. Mal Couch