Dr. Couch, we know the kingdom of God is promised to Israel, and since
the church is not the "new Israel" nor the kingdom, what is the meaning
of Matthew 21:43 that reads: "I say to you (the Pharisees), the kingdom
of God will be taken from you and given to another nation (ethnos)
producing the fruit of it"?
ANSWER:
In the NT the overwhelming use of the word ethnos is used in the
plural and is generally translated "Gentiles," though sometimes
"nations." Or, a few times in the singular "the heathen."
Some wrongly have tried to use Peter's words in 1 Peter 2:9-10 to say
in these verses he is calling the church "a new" kind of nation. But if
one examines closely this passage, this could not be.
Peter is writing to Jewish Christians, those among the diaspora or
who are residing as "the aliens," "the scattered" among the Gentile
Greeks (1:1). Peter then applies Isaiah 61:4-6 and Deuteronomy 10:15 to
these new Jewish Christians, because they are now, even in the church,
recipients of the blessings of the new covenant. Peter writes
Peter's point is that their generation was rejected because they
rejected their own Messiah, but these he is writing to have received
mercy and accepted Christ as their Savior. While they are part of the
body of Christ, they are also "fulfilled" or completed Jews, fulfilling
the purpose God intended for this people, because they have accepted
their Messiah!
Since the Lord Jesus in Matthew 21:43 is talking about "the kingdom
of God" (that is without question distinctly messianic and not the
church) that will be taken away from that present generation of Jews and
"give to a nation" that will produce fruit, He more than likely is
talking about a future generation of Jews, a new and different nation,
and not the generation that is standing before Him. This would be the
Jews who enter the messianic kingdom when He returns to earth to rule
and reign!
The Pharisees got it! They knew He was talking about their rejection
of Him (v. 45) and they realized that the people knew He was a
predictive prophet (v. 46).
Since the "kingdom of God" will be an earthly spiritual nation of the
Jewish people on earth, the parallel to "kingdom of God" would be
"another" nation "equal" to the kingdom of God! (If that makes sense!)
It is admitted by all that this is an obscure and not-so-clear verse.
And one of the most important rules of good hermeneutics is that you do
not establish a doctrine by an obscure or difficult passage of
Scripture. I do not have to "fight" over the meaning of Matthew 21:43 in
order to uphold the ideal of a literal earthly kingdom yet to come. I
have hundreds if not thousands of both OT and NT verses to show that
this is yet future. And too, I take the clear meaning of these many,
many verses to heart, while the amillennial allegorists have to put into
the texts their allegorical interpretations.
Prophecy scholar Dr. Walvoord writes on this verse: "This should not be construed as a turning away from
Israel to the Gentiles."
Dr. Toussaint writes: "The 'kingdom of God' always refers to the future
millennial kingdom on earth."
Dr. Gaebelein (a use-to-be allegorist) says: "The nation is Israel still, but [this passage is about]
that believing remnant of the nation, living when the
Lord comes."
I hope this helps and thanks for asking.
Dr. Mal Couch,
