Atonement in the New Testament

Dr. Couch, I understand the word "Atonement" is not used in the NT. Is this correct?

ANSWER: The word is used in the KJV but this is incorrect. The word is used in the OT in many places. In Hebrew the word is "kipper" meaning "to tent, to pitch a tent, spread over, put a cover over." God covers the sins of Israel until Christ comes in order to complete the work of redemption. Our English word "to cover" comes from this word. Sometimes it is translated "reconciliation."

The Day of Atonement comes in the Fall. God forgave for another year Israel's sins. The word is first used in Exodus 29:36. Aaron was to offer a sacrifice as an atonement for a sin offering and he was to purify the altar and make it holy, "consecrate" it. The altar was to be seen as holy because upon it the animal sacrifice was to be offered. The offering represented the death of Christ for the sins of Israel. But of course, they did not see this at that time! To make an atonement here is in the Piel Intensive form and could be translated "For a sin offering, Aaron shall distinctly (intensely) make a 'covering, atonement' for the altar and make it holy ..."

The Jewish people were not to simply make a covering with little thought about it. This was a very important issue with God, Aaron, and Moses!

There is a grammatical surprise in the way "kippur" (atonement) is used in the OT. It is almost always used in what is called the Piel verb form. This makes the action very intense and definite. "An atonement, reconciliation was definitely made ..."

The Lord is very serious about an atonement, covering being carried out. This is an important subject with Him. If Israel's sins as a nation, or as an individual were not covered, God could not bless nor deal with them.

Thanks for asking.
Dr. Mal Couch (2/11)

Tolerance and Truth

Dr. Couch, tolerance seems to be the word for today. No one can speak the truth with strong conviction as the apostle Paul in the NT. What do you say? ANSWER:  Paul comes out swinging with strong words in his epistles against sin and its consequences. For example, in 1 Timothy 1, he makes it clear that evil is thoroughly evil and must be addressed. He says that the law was righteous but it was given for those who were unrighteous and rebellious (1:9). He adds, the law was "for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who kill their fathers and mothers, for murderers, and immoral men and homosexuals and kidnappers and liars and perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound teaching, according to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, with which I have been entrusted."    Paul is saying that the gospel, and its indictment against the sins he has just listed, is to be applied to the culture and the society, not just for the acceptance within the church. These are sins that the gospel and the Word of God speaks against. Whether the culture likes it or not, these are sins that must be spoken against first by the Bible, and then by believers who are living in this world.    We presently have congressmen and judges in high places who are homosexuals and we should be able to speak out against them with the authority of the law of Scripture, that seems to be what Paul is saying in these passages.    We have been far too silent and passive. And I believe that we are all too afraid to address head-on the sinful state of our society. We have become quiet and do not have the ability to be vocal when the time arises.    Because of this silence, we will pay the price of seeing our nation sink deeper and deeper into the abyss of evil. Thanks for asking. Dr. Mal Couch (11/10)