2 Corinthians 5:17-21

Dr. Couch, what does Paul mean when he says that God has reconciled the world to Himself, not counting their trespasses against them (2 Cor. 5:17-21)?

ANSWER: To reconcile means to remove enmity between two parties. It involves a “change in relationship” so Mitchell notes. The first reaction is to think that the entire world has been “saved” but that's not Paul's point. He is referring to the world of those who have been saved. In other words, God has supplied for people a reconciliation based on the death of Christ. They still have to appropriate His work on the cross. This is not a statement of universalism.

Hodge points out “God was making atonement for the sins of the world, By the world (without the article) he meant 'man, mankind.'” In the same sense Christ is called “the Savior of the world, or the Savior of men,” Hodge goes on: “God has commissioned his ministers to announce to all men that God is reconciled and ready to forgive, so that whosoever will may turn unto Him and live.”

Barrett adds: “Transgressions are no longer counted against men, the way is now open for reconciliation; nothing remains but for men to take it, what God has supplied.” But they must receive His offer of redemption. Men are not saved until they appropriate the provision in what Christ did on the cross. But salvation is now ready to be received! God “loves the world” (John 3:16) but this does not mean the world is saved until it accepts what Jesus did for it.

This is a provision; it is not universalism, as if salvation is now automatic. Men must believe.

The BKC goes on: “Reconciliation involves removing rebellious and sinful man's enmity toward God. This is one of the many marvelous accomplishments of the Godhead on behalf of a person the moment he believes in Christ. People no longer need to be the object of God's wrath. Men's sins are no longer counted, that is, imputed or reckoned, against them, for Christ has taken them on Himself.”

“The world” then is the world of those who believe in Christ. Men must appropriate what was done for them in Christ.

Thanks for asking.
--Dr. Mal Couch (10/11)

Atonement in the New Testament

Dr. Couch, I understand the word "Atonement" is not used in the NT. Is this correct?

ANSWER: The word is used in the KJV but this is incorrect. The word is used in the OT in many places. In Hebrew the word is "kipper" meaning "to tent, to pitch a tent, spread over, put a cover over." God covers the sins of Israel until Christ comes in order to complete the work of redemption. Our English word "to cover" comes from this word. Sometimes it is translated "reconciliation."

The Day of Atonement comes in the Fall. God forgave for another year Israel's sins. The word is first used in Exodus 29:36. Aaron was to offer a sacrifice as an atonement for a sin offering and he was to purify the altar and make it holy, "consecrate" it. The altar was to be seen as holy because upon it the animal sacrifice was to be offered. The offering represented the death of Christ for the sins of Israel. But of course, they did not see this at that time! To make an atonement here is in the Piel Intensive form and could be translated "For a sin offering, Aaron shall distinctly (intensely) make a 'covering, atonement' for the altar and make it holy ..."

The Jewish people were not to simply make a covering with little thought about it. This was a very important issue with God, Aaron, and Moses!

There is a grammatical surprise in the way "kippur" (atonement) is used in the OT. It is almost always used in what is called the Piel verb form. This makes the action very intense and definite. "An atonement, reconciliation was definitely made ..."

The Lord is very serious about an atonement, covering being carried out. This is an important subject with Him. If Israel's sins as a nation, or as an individual were not covered, God could not bless nor deal with them.

Thanks for asking.
Dr. Mal Couch (2/11)

Jews Losing Their Salvation on the Day of Atonement

Dr. Couch, I have heard some say if the Jews do not pray for twenty-four hours on the Day of Atonement (Leviticus 23:26-32) they may lose their salvation. What do you say? ANSWER:  That is an extreme view and one that is out of order even in the OT. The way of salvation for the Jews is given in Genesis 15:6: "The [Abraham] believed in the Lord and He reckoned it to him as righteousness." The Bible is written from a common sense viewpoint. By believing all that the Lord had said to Abraham constituted salvation for him. That belief was "accounted, reckoned, applied" to him for righteousness. In other words, God saw him as Positionally righteousness. This is what happens to us with God seeing us as righteous as Himself, and as righteous as His Son, the Lord Jesus Christ. "Common sense" is part of good hermeneutics and interpretation. The Bible is not wild and woolly in its approach to reality!    In Leviticus 23:27 this Day is called "the Day of atonement," or (Capher), the Day of Covering. The sins of the Jews were covered for another year. Christ does not atone for us. And where the KJV uses the word "atonement" it is wrong, and that is why I don't use that "old" version. Christ's death was a one-for-all act whereby God is finished with our sins. We read in Hebrews 9:12: "He entered the holy place once for all, having obtained ETERNAL REDEMPTION." And, Christ "is a mediator of a new covenant, ... by which we receive the promise of the ETERNAL INHERITANCE" (v. 15).    Back to the issue of the Jews and the OT: In Leviticus 23 the Jews were to humble themselves and do no work or they would be cut off from their people. This is not an issue of loss of salvation but they could die physically, for God "will destroy them from among [their] people" (v. 30).    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (Mar., 10)