The Location of the Real Tabernacle

Dr. Couch, is the real tabernacle in heaven?

ANSWER: The most used word for tabernacle (or tent) is skeenee. It is used eleven times in the book of Hebrews. There it is called the “true,” the “first” in importance, “the holiest of all,” the “perfect.” In 8:2 we read “the true tabernacle, which the Lord pitched and not man.” Verse 1 reads “the main point in what has been said is this: we have such a high priest [now], who has taken His seat at the right hand of the throne of the Majesty in the heavens.” “At the right hand of the throne” is quoting Psalm 110:1-2. This is where Christ is now!

Is this tabernacle real? When we get to heaven will we have a “real” body? Yes, but it is not of this same physical we now possess. It will be real but it will also be eternal. The heavenly tabernacle is real but it is not of the same material that the wooden tabernacle was made of. The tabernacle in the wilderness was limited. It was patterned after the heavenly. But it was a place where the offerings were made representing Christ. The tabernacle in heaven represents Christ and His offering for sin, though He will be there in glory. The heavenly tabernacle but represents that great work He performed when here on earth. It is where God meets with man that brings about a redemption for believers.

Thanks for asking.
Dr. Mal Couch (6/12)

God's Gift of Faith

Dr. Couch, is faith a gift of God as it seems to say in Ephesians 2:8?

ANSWER: The passage reads: "Saved by faith (Feminine), and that (Neuter) not of yourselves, it is the gift (Neuter) of God." The "gift of God" is Neuter and it points back to "that" which is also Neuter and is pointing and modifying the word "gift." Salvation includes the faith and it all is God's gift. He is the One who is activating the entire process of salvation.

Nicoll says the verse can read "God's gift it is. The salvation is not an achievement but a gift, and a gift from none other than God."

He goes on: "That the glory of that salvation belongs wholly to God and in no degree to man, and that it has been so planned and so effected as to take from us all ground for boasting, is enforced on Paul's hearers again and again, ..."

Hendriksen writes: "Salvation is the gift of God followed by a fourth and fifth repetition, namely, not of works, for we are His handiwork."

Several other great verses tell us that faith is a gift of God. Paul writes: "Peace be to the brothers, and LOVE WITH FAITH FROM GOD THE FATHER and FROM the LORD JESUS CHRIST" (Eph. 6:23).

And "by GOD'S DOING you are IN Christ Jesus, who BECAME TO US … righteousness and sanctification, and redemption" (1 Cor. 1:30).

Also, "God has chosen you from the beginning for salvation THROUGH, BY MEANS OF sanctification by the Spirit and (by means of) FAITH IN THE TRUTH" (2 Thess. 2:13).

Thanks for asking.
--Dr. Mal Couch (10/11)

Fruit Bearing

Dr. Couch, what is going on in John 15 and the issue of fruit bearing?



ANSWER: The context is about the believer being a branch in Christ who is, or who is not, bearing fruit. As a branch, if there is no fruit bearing the branch is removed from that position of being a branch. But notice, the branch is judged by "them," by "men" or by others and are burned, that is, they are judged by other people, even the lost, if no fruit is produced.

This is not about our position "in Christ" in regard to our salvation but it is about fruit bearing, not about redemption. In fellowship, all one has to do to bear fruit is "to abide in Him" (v. 5). (Present Active Indicative) "The branch who is continually sticking, staying with Christ."

This "abiding" means in Greek "to remain with" Him, stay with Him, "don't go away!" Notice that verse 6 says "they" meaning men, or people, gather them (the wayward) believer, and then men (these people) cast them into the fire (referring to a judgment) and they are burned or judged for lack of fruit bearing (v. 6). God is not casting the believer into the fire for judgment but "they" (others) are judging the believers for their lack of producing fruit.

Christians cannot bear fruit by themselves. Christ said "The branch cannot bear fruit of itself, unless it abides (sticks or stays with) the vine, so neither can you, unless you continually stick with, stay with" Him in a fruit bearing position (v. 4). This is not about positional salvation but about staying with Christ in order to bear fruit. Salvation is not the issue but good works is what the passage is all about!

Notice that the Father is glorified when we bear fruit. Salvation is not the issue. Bearing much fruit is what the Lord is looking for (v. 8).

I hope this helps.
—Dr. Mal Couch (7/11)

Death and Adam's Sin

Dr. Couch, I don't see in Romans 8:22 that it says that death came into the world because of Adam's sin. All creation groans to be delivered but is this also implying that death is part of that groaning, brought on because of Adam's fall?

ANSWER: In court cases, circumstantial evidence is considered valid evidence as well as "direct evidence." The proof that death came into the world is circumstantial and this is valid. The proof is in what happened to all flesh. Circumstantial evidence can be evidence! The violence of all in the animal world circumstantially points to the sin that entered the world through Adam's fall.

In Romans 8 we read that God causes the creation to be subjected to futility—creation is enslaved to corruption because of the sin of Adam. The entire creation now groans to be delivered. Humanity is at the top of all flesh that has been created. Man is the epitome of the creation of flesh. What happens to man, and what man did, brings about a subjection to the rest of the animal world.

Below are some quotes that give to us circumstantial proof that, because of Adam's sin, the entire realm of the creation of the animal world, suffers and moves towards death. The Lord told Adam "Curses is the ground because of you; in toil you will eat of it all the days of your life. Both thorns and thistles it shall grow because of you" (Gen. 3:17b-19).

God "grieves in His heart because He made man on the earth. He said, I will blot out man whom I have created from the face of the earth, from man to animal to creeping things and to birds of the sky; for I am sorry that I have made them" (6:7). "The earth (the animal life) was corrupt in the sigh to God,and the earth was filled with violence. God looked on the earth, and behold, it (the animal kingdom) was corrupt for all flesh had corrupted their way upon the earth. … The end of all flesh has come before Me; for the earth is filled with violence because of them; and behold, I am about to destroy them with the earth" (vv. 11-13).

"I am bringing the flood of water upon the earth, to destroy all flesh in which is the breath of life, from under heaven; everything that is on the earth shall perish" (v. 17). How did the earth, and all flesh, become so corrupt? The only answer is the fact of the sin of mankind.

All flesh will die. "Every beast after its kind, and all the cattle after their kind, and every creeping thing that creeps on the earth after its kind, and every bird after its kind, all sorts of birds" (7:14).

With the flood waters, "All flesh that moved on the earth perished, birds and cattle and beasts and every swarming thing that swarms upon the earth, and all mankind; of all that was on the dry land, all in whose nostrils was the breath of the spirit of life, died" (vv. 21-22). God "blotted out every living thing that was upon the face of the land, from man to animal to creeping things and to birds of the sky, and they were blotted out from the earth" (v. 23).

Until mankind is finally and ultimately redeemed, "creation is subjected to futility because God has so subjected it" (Rom. 8:20). "The whole creation groans and suffers the pains of childbirth together until now" (v. 22).

What does the Greek word "futility" mean? It means to be "void of force, lack of truth, useless, without purpose, to be devoid of appropriateness, frailty, lack of vigor, to be made empty, deprivation, vain." Because of sin, brought into the realm of creation by mankind, the creation no longer has purpose or meaning.

Thanks for asking.
—Dr. Mal Couch (7/11)

Redeemed in the Old Testament

Dr. Couch, what does it mean in the OT to be redeemed? ANSWER:  Great question! The word in Hebrew is ga'al and it means to buy back as a field or a farm that had been sold. This is well illustrated in Leviticus 25:25. In redeeming an individual blood is always required. The OT gives us pictures of the redemption that Christ would accomplish for us when He went to the cross.    The NT word is "lutroo." It can be translated "ransom" or "redeem," with the idea of purchasing a slave out of the market place. Or, out of the market place of sin. Jesus gave His life "as a ransom for many" (Matt. 20:28). Christ "having obtained eternal redemption for us" (Heb. 9:12).    Titus 2:14 is a great passage on the subject: Christ "gave Himself for us, that He might redeem us from every lawless deed and purify for Himself a people for His own possession." The question: is this a positional or experiential redemption? It is a positional redemption in that we now have a new position with Him because of what He did for us. We in our daily experiences can still sin and do wrong, but we are thoroughly and eternally redeemed positionally before Him.    "Redeem" ("lutroo") is the word that refers to giving a ransom, especially for the release of prisoners of war, slaves, and debtors. Lutroo is the price of release for the liberation of a prisoner. Generally, the release is determined by law or the "right of the sovereign." Jesus actually gave Himself as the ransom price. He was willing to pay the debt of our sins before the sovereign God.    Christ made it clear to His disciples that "the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life a "ransom" for many (Matt. 20:28; Mark 10:45). Peter also alludes to Isaiah 53 and adds that the Lord's "redemption" of us was not "with perishable things like silver or gold … but with the precious blood, as of a lamb unblemished and spotless, the blood of Christ (1 Pet. 1:18-19).    The writer of Hebrews concludes that Christ "entered the holy place once for all, having obtained eternal redemption … who through the eternal Spirit offered Himself without blemish to God" (9:12-14). Redemption is one of the greatest doctrines that secures our eternal salvation. Without it, there is no eternal life with Christ.    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (11/10)

Our Inheritance

Dr. Couch, is our inheritance in salvation something we now have or is it only an inheritance that we finally get when we go home to heaven? ANSWER:   In Ephesians 1:14 we are told the Holy Spirit presently (Present Tense) is the "earnest" or Guarantor of our inheritance. He IS (Present Tense of the "to be" verb) right now the Earnest of our redemption. He will be so until our final redemption comes about, and takes place.    In Ephesians 1:18 Paul says he wants the eyes of the believer to "be enlightened" to the fact of knowing "the riches of the glory of God's inheritance (for) the saints." Paul uses a Perfect Tense with the words "enlightened" and "may know." He wants for the child of God this enlightenment and knowledge to have begun in the past and then come up to the present in his experiential knowledge.  "I want you to have gone through a process of enlightenment, and to have gone through the process of learning (knowing) ..."    While there is a present awareness of our inheritance, there is also a future inheritance that will bring to fulfillment and completion our salvation. The writer of Hebrews in 1:14 says "the angels are ministering spirits ... for the sake of those who are 'to be inheriting' salvation."    "To be inheriting" is a Present Infinitive. We are going forward in "inheriting" salvation that will be brought to completion in the future. While this is a Present Infinitive it has a future component to it. This inheritance is presently going forward and will be completed with our salvation in the future.    Even though "inheritance" is a Present Infinitive it has a "resultant" thought to it, or a future thought behind it. And the translators caught this and translate the Present Infinitive in the NASB in a future sense. "For the sake of those who WILL INHERIT salvation [in the future] ..."     In my commentary series, Ger in Hebrews caught this future idea in the inheritance in Hebrews 1:14, with the Present Tense, when he wrote "the ministering spirits, the angels, are still hard at work on behalf of those who WILL INHERIT salvation (the ultimate salvation in the future), the Son is pictured as seated and at rest, awaiting His FUTURE reign following the Father's final conquest of the Son's enemies."     Conclusion: In timing, we now have a Present Tense in our inheritance but we also have a future component of completion. Our inheritance will be fulfilled and brought to completion someday in the future when we're in glory! We have the inheritance now and it will be consummated in the future!    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (7/10)

The Second Coming

Dr. Couch, I heard you say that the idea of Christ's Second Coming was in the Bible. Can you give me again that passage? ANSWER:  The passage is Hebrews 9:28. There the author of Hebrews writes "So Christ, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, shall appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him."    His first coming was in reference to sin. He went to the cross for sinners. "Shall appear a second time" is almost the same wording as "Second Coming!" Christ's second coming is a salvation but it has to do with being rescued from the persecution of the world. We find this idea in Luke 1:68-72. The idea there is about Christ bringing a salvation, a redemption "for His people" that is a salvation "from our enemies." The second coming is Christ redeeming Israel from her enemies in the world. But His first coming is: "To give to His people the knowledge of salvation by the forgiveness of their sins" (Luke 1:77). The two comings are clearly shown here in Luke and prophesied by the father of John the Baptist, Zacharias.    The Amil guys need to weep and cry. Boy, talking about the Amil guys having bad theology! Part of their problem is they just don't study their Bible!    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (6-10)

Jews Losing Their Salvation on the Day of Atonement

Dr. Couch, I have heard some say if the Jews do not pray for twenty-four hours on the Day of Atonement (Leviticus 23:26-32) they may lose their salvation. What do you say? ANSWER:  That is an extreme view and one that is out of order even in the OT. The way of salvation for the Jews is given in Genesis 15:6: "The [Abraham] believed in the Lord and He reckoned it to him as righteousness." The Bible is written from a common sense viewpoint. By believing all that the Lord had said to Abraham constituted salvation for him. That belief was "accounted, reckoned, applied" to him for righteousness. In other words, God saw him as Positionally righteousness. This is what happens to us with God seeing us as righteous as Himself, and as righteous as His Son, the Lord Jesus Christ. "Common sense" is part of good hermeneutics and interpretation. The Bible is not wild and woolly in its approach to reality!    In Leviticus 23:27 this Day is called "the Day of atonement," or (Capher), the Day of Covering. The sins of the Jews were covered for another year. Christ does not atone for us. And where the KJV uses the word "atonement" it is wrong, and that is why I don't use that "old" version. Christ's death was a one-for-all act whereby God is finished with our sins. We read in Hebrews 9:12: "He entered the holy place once for all, having obtained ETERNAL REDEMPTION." And, Christ "is a mediator of a new covenant, ... by which we receive the promise of the ETERNAL INHERITANCE" (v. 15).    Back to the issue of the Jews and the OT: In Leviticus 23 the Jews were to humble themselves and do no work or they would be cut off from their people. This is not an issue of loss of salvation but they could die physically, for God "will destroy them from among [their] people" (v. 30).    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (Mar., 10)

Is the Law still in Force?

Dr. Couch, I believe the Bible is clear that the Mosaic Law ended with Christ's death, but Matthew 5:17-18 troubles me. Is the Law still in force? ANSWER:  In these verses Christ said that He did not come to "abolish" the Law but instead, to fulfill it. He said not one part of it would pass away "until all is accomplished." "Abolish" is the Greek word "to destroy, to pull or tear down." It is an Aorist Infinitive and could be translated "to reach a point to tear [the Law] down." The word "fulfill" is "plaraoo" and it is also an Aorist Infinitive. "I came to complete the Law." He then adds that not one small part of the Law will pass away until "all of it should come about" (an Aorist Subjunctive).    Many believe that the Lord was indicating that He, by His life, would fulfill or keep the Law. What part of the Law? Probably not the Civil or Ceremonial part of it but the moral principles of the Law. Christ lived a perfect and complete life, with no sin, because He is the holy Son of God!    The NT says two things: (1) the Law would someday cease and be replaced by the New Covenant, and, (2) we would no longer be under the Law. That (1) the New Covenant would replace the Mosaic Law was stated in Jeremiah 31:31-32. "I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel (Northern Kingdom) and with the house of Judah (Southern Kingdom), not like the covenant which I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt, …" With the new covenant the Jews will receive permanent forgiveness of sin (not so under the Mosaic covenant), and "their sins I will remember no more" (v. 34). Hebrews 8:6-13 picks up on this and says that the new covenant will replace the Law. "When God said 'A new covenant,' He had made the first covenant (the Law) obsolete. But whatever is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to disappear" (v. 13).    Paul then adds that (2) we are no longer under the Law which was a tutor to us to bring us to Christ. "We are no longer under a tutor" (Gal. 3:25). He also says: "You are no longer under law, but under grace" (Rom. 6:14). "We have been released from the Law, having died to that by which we were bound, so that we serve in newness of the Spirit (the new covenant) and not in oldness of the letter (of the Law)" (7:6).    We are now justified not by law-keeping but by faith. "We maintain that a man is justified by faith apart from the works of the law" (3:28), thus we do not nullify the Law through our faith but instead "we establish the Law" (v. 31). Finally, "by the works of the Law no flesh will be justified in God's sight; for through the Law comes the knowledge of sin" (3:20). In place of law, we are "being justified as a gift by His grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus" (v. 24).    I hope this helps. Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch