Is James 5 Referencing the Rapture?

Dr. Couch, is James 5:7-9 a rapture passage?

ANSWER: Yes, it is, for a number of reasons that I will explain below. Some have said it could not be a rapture passage because the word "rapture" is not in the verses. This is true but that is not a good argument. In fact the word we translate as "rapture" is only used one time in 1 Thessalonians 4:17 and there it is translated as "to be caught up." The Greek word is harpazo that means to "snatch away," or "to jerk away." But the doctrine is actually taught in about 13 or more other passages of Scripture.

The same is true about the phrase "the second coming" in regard to Christ's return, His coming down to reign in Israel as the Davidic King. That expression "the second coming" is used only one time in Hebrews 9:28 where it says that the Lord will "appear a second time" for deliverance. But hundreds of other passages tell us of His second coming to reign on earth.

James 5:7 speaks of the "coming of the Lord." James then goes on and speaks about the farmer who waits for the produce of the soil. The believers are to be patient and strengthen the heart "for the coming of the Lord is 'certain, guaranteed and in the hand, sure'" (eggus) (v. 8). Believers then are not to complain against each other because "the Judge (the Lord) is standing right at the door" (v. 9), and we could be judged for speaking against our fellow believer when He arrives.

The outstanding teacher on the rapture, Dr. John F. Walvoord, holds that this James passage is a rapture teaching. Since James was one of the earliest NT books, this is probably the first teaching on the subject.

Why is this a rapture passage?

Because believers in the church dispensation are warned that Christ is the Judge who presently standing right now at the door. If He came today, and I was mistreating a fellow believer, they "I will be judged when He walks in!" If I judge myself then I will not be judged. The Bema Judgment is for rewards whether we have done good or bad works. Paul writes: "For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ that each one will be recompensed for his deeds in the body according to what he has done whether good or bad" (2 Cor. 5:10).

Could this James 5:7-9 be a second coming passage? No, because those of us who are now in the church dispensation could see this take place, that is, His coming as Judge. There are two events that must take place before Christ's coming to rule in Jerusalem. (1) the rapture itself, and (2) the seven year tribulation, or the wrath of God on the earth after the church has gone to glory. Coming as Judge here in James has to do with the church and not His judgment upon the world.

This coming here in James is imminent for us, the present believers of the church dispensation. In that sense, we are not waiting for the second coming. We are waiting for the rapture "coming."

Dr. Paul Benware writes on the James passage and the rapture: "As the New Testament passages on the rapture were written; no signs were given that must be fulfilled. A normal reading of a number of Scripture passages leads to the conclusion that the writers of the New Testament believed in imminency. From James 5:7-9 Christ could return at any moment. … Therefore, in verse 8 James is declaring that the Lord Jesus 'has drawn near,' indicating that He may well appear at any moment. The verb "standing" in verse 9 is better translated 'has taken a stand.' The picture James paints is that of the Lord Jesus standing right a the door with His hand on the knob, ready to fling the door open at any moment and appear to us. The opening of this door may not be soon, but it is certainly seen as an imminent event. And because the Judge could appear at any moment, these believers are to live correctly."
—Dr. Mal Couch (2/11)

The Second Coming

Dr. Couch, I heard you say that the idea of Christ's Second Coming was in the Bible. Can you give me again that passage? ANSWER:  The passage is Hebrews 9:28. There the author of Hebrews writes "So Christ, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, shall appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him."    His first coming was in reference to sin. He went to the cross for sinners. "Shall appear a second time" is almost the same wording as "Second Coming!" Christ's second coming is a salvation but it has to do with being rescued from the persecution of the world. We find this idea in Luke 1:68-72. The idea there is about Christ bringing a salvation, a redemption "for His people" that is a salvation "from our enemies." The second coming is Christ redeeming Israel from her enemies in the world. But His first coming is: "To give to His people the knowledge of salvation by the forgiveness of their sins" (Luke 1:77). The two comings are clearly shown here in Luke and prophesied by the father of John the Baptist, Zacharias.    The Amil guys need to weep and cry. Boy, talking about the Amil guys having bad theology! Part of their problem is they just don't study their Bible!    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (6-10)

John the Baptist Replaces Elijah

Dr. Couch, does John the Baptist "replace" the coming of Elijah? Elijah is supposed to come before the arrival of the Messiah to establish the earthly Davidic Kingdom. The amillennialists say that John fulfills the prediction of Elijah, and therefore, the Kingdom has come already! ANSWER:  Of course, they are wrong, and they do not read carefully. There are two predictions about the arrival of heralds (1) to announce the first coming of Christ, and (2) to announce His second coming. Isaiah 40:3-5 and Malachi 3:1-3 announce the coming of John the Baptist. Isaiah 40:3-5 is directly applied to John in Luke 3:4-6. He is the voice "in the wilderness."    The Angel of the Lord made it clear to John's father, Zecharias, that John came in the "spirit and power" of Elijah (Luke 1:17). That is, John came announcing the first coming of Christ, with the same spirit and purpose that Elijah will have when he comes to announce the Lord's second coming.    Malachi 4:5-6 tells Israel that Elijah will come to announce Christ's second coming. The passage reads "Behold, I am going to send you Elijah the prophet before the coming of the great and terrible day of the Lord. And he will restore the hearts of the fathers to their children, …" Here, the "great and terrible day" is not the Tribulation period, but is describing the judgment brought on the Gentiles, and upon Israel, when the Messiah arrives to establish the kingdom. He comes with fury and judges the wayward Gentiles and the rebellious Jews.    The Jewish people, and Christ's disciples, understood that there was no confusion about the coming of John the Baptist (to announce the Lord's first coming) and the arrival of Elijah (to announce the Lord's second coming). Matthew 16:28-17:13 is an important section of verses on this issue:    Christ told His disciples that the Son of Man, the Messiah, would someday come in His messianic, Davidic Kingdom (16:28). This is the one thousand year reign of Christ! Then Jesus was transfigured before Peter, James, and John, that is, He suddenly appeared in His glorified form, as He will be seen, when the Kingdom arrives and is established. Elijah and Moses appear with the Lord and began talking to Him. Moses was used of God to establish the nation of Israel following the liberation of the Jews from Egypt. Elijah announces the Lord's first coming.    Christ's disciples said to Him, "Why then do the scribes say that Elijah must come first?" (v. 10), that is, come first to establish the earthly Kingdom rule. Christ then confirmed: "Elijah is coming and will restore all things" (v. 11). The "restore all things" refers to Malachi 4:5-6. But then Christ added, "But I say to you, that Elijah already came, and they did not recognize him …" (v. 12). With these words, "The disciples understood that He had spoken to them about John the Baptist" (v. 13).    To clarify what Christ is saying, one must look carefully at Matthew 17:11. Jesus uses the Present Tense, and the Future Tense: "Elijah IS COMING and He WILL RESTORE all things." Was John the Baptist coming back "to restore in the future all things?" No, the disciples understood that John was a type of Elijah who signaled the Lord's First Coming, as Elijah would signal the Lord's Second Coming. The transfiguration of Christ was a presentation and preview of His future appearance as "the Son of Man (strong messianic term)" who will someday come to inaugurate His earthly one thousand year Davidic Kingdom (16:28).    The disciples were not confused. They got it. We are the ones who are confused because we are not reading carefully enough! Unger well explains:    "Just as God sent John the Baptist to be the Messiahs' herald at His first advent, so He will send before Christ's second advent 'Elijah the prophet,' … as a great prophetic witness in Elijah's 'official, not his personal capacity,' in the sense that John the Baptist was an Elijah in spirit (Luke 1:16-17)."    I hope this helps. Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch

Second Coming or Rapture?

Dr. Couch, is 1 Corinthians 1:7-8 about the second coming of Christ or is it about the rapture of the believers just prior to the terrible Day of the Lord, the coming Wrath? ANSWER:  I believe it is about the rapture of the church for the following reasons: (1) Paul says the Corinthians, and us as well, are "awaiting eagerly the revelation of our Lord Jesus Christ" (v. 7). Notice that we (also the Corinthians) presently waiting for this next event, which would be the rapture. Many things must take place before His second coming. (2) Verse 8 from the Greek text better reads: "Who shall also in the future establish (bebaioo) you with absoluteness (finality) in the day of our Lord Jesus Christ."    Verse 8 has a similar ring to 1 Thessalonians 3:13: "So that He may establish your hearts unblamable in holiness at (the time of) the coming of our Lord Jesus with all His saints." 1 Thessalonians 3:13 is without doubt a rapture passage.    God's work in us will go all the way until the rapture in which we meet the Lord in the air. Paul shows this when he writes: "God is faithful through whom you were called into fellowship with His Son, Jesus Christ our Lord" (1 Cor. 1:9).    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch

What Does the Word Epiphany Mean?

Dr. Couch, what does the word epiphany mean? I understand it is used in the Bible to refer to the second coming of Christ. 

 

    Yes, indeed. But it is used sometimes also to describe the rapture of the church.

    The word epiphany literally means "the out shining." The preposition "epi" intensifies the word "phaneo" which means "to shine," "give forth light." In Titus 2:11 and 3:4 the verb is used to describe the fact that the gospel, and the love of God, has "appeared" (shines brightly) to men through our Savior. 

    In 2 Timothy 1:10 epiphany is used to describe the Lord’s first coming to earth to bring salvation. In 1 Timothy 6:14-15 the word (appearing) is used to describe His coming kingship and sovereignty at the second coming to earth in which He is to reign and rule. The same in 2 Timothy 4:1. "I charge you," Paul writes, "in the presence of God and of Christ Jesus, who is to judge the living and the dead, and by His appearing and His kingdom; ... " 

    2 Timothy 4:8 could be referring to the rapture because Paul speaks of "the future" at which time he will receive "the crown of righteousness" along with others "who have loved His appearing." It is when the church is taken to glory that rewards are given out.

    In Titus 2:13 the word "epiphany" is used definitely to describe the rapture of the church. Paul says we are to be "looking for the blessed hope and the epiphany of the glory of our great God and Savior, Christ Jesus." The "blessed hope" is the present anticipation, for the church saints, of the soon coming of the Lord—the rapture, the catching away suddenly of those in Christ. 

    2 Thessalonians 2:8 is about the second coming of Christ to earth in which He will "slay with the breath of His mouth and bring to an end by the appearance of His coming" the antichrist. This is His coming to rule and reign on the throne of David. 

    Other related words are used such as in Acts 2:20. Here epiphanees speaks of the Lord’s second coming, and calls it "the great and glorious day of the Lord [which] shall come." 

    Epiphany is a wonderful and graphic word that tells us, whether it is referring to the rapture or to the second coming, His appearing will be full of brightness and clarity! 

Thanks for asking.

Dr. Mal Couch

Is The Rapture The Second Coming?

Dr. Couch Is Hebrews 9:28 about Christ appearing a second time discussing the rapture of the church or His coming to reign? I am having trouble with this passage. 

 

    First of all many confuse what the message of Hebrews is all about, and too, who the audience is. Without question the letter was sent to a group of Christians, but the purpose was to use the letter as a polemic or an apologetic document for the Jews who knew of Christ but had not accepted Him as their Messiah and Savior. There is no way the book was written to keep wayward Jews from falling back! This won’t fly. Why do you think the early church called the book "The Letter to the Hebrews!"? And why do you think it was accepted late in the canon? Because the early church could not figure the book out. They tried to make it a normal letter like those of Paul and Peter. Hebrew 9:28 reads: "So Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, shall appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him." The "second time" is related to the "first time." The first coming was literal, actual, physical, and historical. The second appearance will have the same qualities: literal, actual, physical, and historical. In the rapture His feet do not touch the earth. The church is caught up to Him (1 Thess. 4:17). "Then we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air, and thus we shall always be with the Lord." 

The rapture is not the SECOND COMING! He does not appear on earth! The word "appear" in 9:28 is the Greek word horao and it is in the Fut. Pass. Ind. verb form, translated: "He in the future will be made visible." Interestingly, the Greek simply says "He in the future will be made visible OF THE SECOND." The Jews reading this knew He had come THE FIRST. Conclusion: This is not the rapture! And, the rapture would have nothing to do with these unsaved Jews. Besides, the rapture of the church is never called "the second coming" or THE SECOND! But the author of Hebrews had thoroughly documented His first coming, and its meaning, i.e., He came to save! They completely understood that His second coming was to reign! 

    Thanks for asking.

    Dr. Mal Couch