The Second Coming

Dr. Couch, I heard you say that the idea of Christ's Second Coming was in the Bible. Can you give me again that passage? ANSWER:  The passage is Hebrews 9:28. There the author of Hebrews writes "So Christ, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, shall appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him."    His first coming was in reference to sin. He went to the cross for sinners. "Shall appear a second time" is almost the same wording as "Second Coming!" Christ's second coming is a salvation but it has to do with being rescued from the persecution of the world. We find this idea in Luke 1:68-72. The idea there is about Christ bringing a salvation, a redemption "for His people" that is a salvation "from our enemies." The second coming is Christ redeeming Israel from her enemies in the world. But His first coming is: "To give to His people the knowledge of salvation by the forgiveness of their sins" (Luke 1:77). The two comings are clearly shown here in Luke and prophesied by the father of John the Baptist, Zacharias.    The Amil guys need to weep and cry. Boy, talking about the Amil guys having bad theology! Part of their problem is they just don't study their Bible!    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (6-10)

Is The Rapture The Second Coming?

Dr. Couch Is Hebrews 9:28 about Christ appearing a second time discussing the rapture of the church or His coming to reign? I am having trouble with this passage. 

 

    First of all many confuse what the message of Hebrews is all about, and too, who the audience is. Without question the letter was sent to a group of Christians, but the purpose was to use the letter as a polemic or an apologetic document for the Jews who knew of Christ but had not accepted Him as their Messiah and Savior. There is no way the book was written to keep wayward Jews from falling back! This won’t fly. Why do you think the early church called the book "The Letter to the Hebrews!"? And why do you think it was accepted late in the canon? Because the early church could not figure the book out. They tried to make it a normal letter like those of Paul and Peter. Hebrew 9:28 reads: "So Christ also, having been offered once to bear the sins of many, shall appear a second time for salvation without reference to sin, to those who eagerly await Him." The "second time" is related to the "first time." The first coming was literal, actual, physical, and historical. The second appearance will have the same qualities: literal, actual, physical, and historical. In the rapture His feet do not touch the earth. The church is caught up to Him (1 Thess. 4:17). "Then we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air, and thus we shall always be with the Lord." 

The rapture is not the SECOND COMING! He does not appear on earth! The word "appear" in 9:28 is the Greek word horao and it is in the Fut. Pass. Ind. verb form, translated: "He in the future will be made visible." Interestingly, the Greek simply says "He in the future will be made visible OF THE SECOND." The Jews reading this knew He had come THE FIRST. Conclusion: This is not the rapture! And, the rapture would have nothing to do with these unsaved Jews. Besides, the rapture of the church is never called "the second coming" or THE SECOND! But the author of Hebrews had thoroughly documented His first coming, and its meaning, i.e., He came to save! They completely understood that His second coming was to reign! 

    Thanks for asking.

    Dr. Mal Couch