The Day Christ was Crucified

Dr. Couch, on what day was Christ crucified?

ANSWER: No one has been able to question the dating of Dr. Harold Hoehner in his classic book THE CHRONOLOGICAL ASPECTS OF THE LIFE OF CHRIST (Zondervan). Dr. Hoehner shared with me that when he finished the book, he shared his research with a group of scholars from Cambridge University. They could offer no criticism because his work was flawless with the best research available.

He wrote that after the Lord was tried by the Sanhedrin, Pilate, Herod Antipas, and Pilate again, (Matt. 27:1-30; Mark 15:1-19; Luke 22:66-23:25), Jesus was then led to the cross and crucified at 9:00 a.m. And died at 3:00 p.m. And was buried later that day (John 19:16-42). He was the Paschal Lamb (1 Cor. 5:7) who died at the time when the Israelites were sacrificing their own lambs.

He died on Friday, Nisan 14, at 3:00 p.m. One must now determine which year between the extremes of A.D. 26 and A.D. 36 is the most plausible as the year of His crucifixion. There have been several studies in this, and their conclusions are that the only possible times Nisan 14 fell on Friday were in the years of A.D. 27, 30, 33, and 36. Of these A.D. 27 is the least likely astronomically. In that year it is probable that Nisan 14 fell on Thursday rather than Friday. The year of A.D. 30 has also been debated, but it is reasonably certain that Nisan 14 was a Friday that year.

In conclusion, then, the calculations of astronomers would limit the probable years of Christ's crucifixion on Friday, Nisan 14, to the years 30, 33, and 36, with A.D. 27 as an unlikely possibility.

You need to purchase the book mentioned above because it is the best ever written on the subject, but also, it is the best work on Daniel's Seventy Weeks as well.

Thanks for asking.
--Dr. Mal Couch(2/12)

2 Corinthians 5:17-21

Dr. Couch, what does Paul mean when he says that God has reconciled the world to Himself, not counting their trespasses against them (2 Cor. 5:17-21)?

ANSWER: To reconcile means to remove enmity between two parties. It involves a “change in relationship” so Mitchell notes. The first reaction is to think that the entire world has been “saved” but that's not Paul's point. He is referring to the world of those who have been saved. In other words, God has supplied for people a reconciliation based on the death of Christ. They still have to appropriate His work on the cross. This is not a statement of universalism.

Hodge points out “God was making atonement for the sins of the world, By the world (without the article) he meant 'man, mankind.'” In the same sense Christ is called “the Savior of the world, or the Savior of men,” Hodge goes on: “God has commissioned his ministers to announce to all men that God is reconciled and ready to forgive, so that whosoever will may turn unto Him and live.”

Barrett adds: “Transgressions are no longer counted against men, the way is now open for reconciliation; nothing remains but for men to take it, what God has supplied.” But they must receive His offer of redemption. Men are not saved until they appropriate the provision in what Christ did on the cross. But salvation is now ready to be received! God “loves the world” (John 3:16) but this does not mean the world is saved until it accepts what Jesus did for it.

This is a provision; it is not universalism, as if salvation is now automatic. Men must believe.

The BKC goes on: “Reconciliation involves removing rebellious and sinful man's enmity toward God. This is one of the many marvelous accomplishments of the Godhead on behalf of a person the moment he believes in Christ. People no longer need to be the object of God's wrath. Men's sins are no longer counted, that is, imputed or reckoned, against them, for Christ has taken them on Himself.”

“The world” then is the world of those who believe in Christ. Men must appropriate what was done for them in Christ.

Thanks for asking.
--Dr. Mal Couch (10/11)

Dates of the Death and Resurrection of Christ

Dr. Couch, is it right to say that Christ was crucified on Nisan 14 (April) and resurrected on Sunday, Nisan 16?

ANSWER: Yes, the best scholarship uses these dates, and I believe they are accurate. But the Lord is not "legalistic" holding our feet to the fire as to the exactness of these dates. The dates are not as important as the fact of His death and resurrection! Don't major on the minors but major on the majors! Christ's death is what gives us our salvation; the resurrection proves that we are justified before God because, His resurrection proves that the Lord is finished with our sins. That is the most important and urgent doctrinal issue we cling to.

Thanks for asking.
—Dr. Mal Couch (4/11)

Redeemed in the Old Testament

Dr. Couch, what does it mean in the OT to be redeemed? ANSWER:  Great question! The word in Hebrew is ga'al and it means to buy back as a field or a farm that had been sold. This is well illustrated in Leviticus 25:25. In redeeming an individual blood is always required. The OT gives us pictures of the redemption that Christ would accomplish for us when He went to the cross.    The NT word is "lutroo." It can be translated "ransom" or "redeem," with the idea of purchasing a slave out of the market place. Or, out of the market place of sin. Jesus gave His life "as a ransom for many" (Matt. 20:28). Christ "having obtained eternal redemption for us" (Heb. 9:12).    Titus 2:14 is a great passage on the subject: Christ "gave Himself for us, that He might redeem us from every lawless deed and purify for Himself a people for His own possession." The question: is this a positional or experiential redemption? It is a positional redemption in that we now have a new position with Him because of what He did for us. We in our daily experiences can still sin and do wrong, but we are thoroughly and eternally redeemed positionally before Him.    "Redeem" ("lutroo") is the word that refers to giving a ransom, especially for the release of prisoners of war, slaves, and debtors. Lutroo is the price of release for the liberation of a prisoner. Generally, the release is determined by law or the "right of the sovereign." Jesus actually gave Himself as the ransom price. He was willing to pay the debt of our sins before the sovereign God.    Christ made it clear to His disciples that "the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life a "ransom" for many (Matt. 20:28; Mark 10:45). Peter also alludes to Isaiah 53 and adds that the Lord's "redemption" of us was not "with perishable things like silver or gold … but with the precious blood, as of a lamb unblemished and spotless, the blood of Christ (1 Pet. 1:18-19).    The writer of Hebrews concludes that Christ "entered the holy place once for all, having obtained eternal redemption … who through the eternal Spirit offered Himself without blemish to God" (9:12-14). Redemption is one of the greatest doctrines that secures our eternal salvation. Without it, there is no eternal life with Christ.    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (11/10)

Moses' Shining Face

Dr. Couch, the first time Moses went up on the mountain and received the Law from God, the Bible does not mention his face shining from seeing the Lord. But the second time he went up, it says in Exodus 34:29-35 that his face shone from speaking with Him. What is the difference? ANSWER:  Moses broke the first set of Law tablets because of the sin of the people in the valley when he came down from the mountain. He went back up and was given a second set of tablets. Then it says "the skin of his face shone because of his speaking with the Lord" (Exod. 34:29). Aaron and the people "were afraid to come near him" (v. 30). Because of their fear Moses had to put a covering over his face to calm their hearts.    One good explanation comes from Unger who writes that the first giving of the Law was totally legal, while the second giving was "mixed with divine grace and glory." This seems to be demonstrated in Exodus 33:5-11, for it says that when Moses appeared before the people, as shown with the pillar of cloud descending, they all stood "and worshipped, each at the entrance of his tent" (v. 10). At least for awhile, they had learned their lesson about the holiness of their God. These chapters were "learning" chapters about who their Lord was. In their encounter with Moses and God, Aaron reminded the Lord that the people "are prone to evil" (32:22).    God's people must recognize the Lord's judgment and His grace. There is not the one without the other. As sinners, we are due judgment, but Christ went to the cross to provide grace. "Don't mess with the Lord, as Israel did!" Where would we be without His grace and mercy?    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch (Mar., 10)

Salvation by Relationship or Faith?

Dr. Couch, is it accurate to say that salvation depends on a person's "relationship" with Christ when the Bible states that a person is saved by faith/belief? ANSWER: Sometimes we throw the word "relationship" around too freely. Sometimes we simply mean that one who has trusted Christ now has a relationship with Him, after belief! Generally, we use the word "relationship" in regard to one's walk and fellowship with Christ, after we've trusted Him for salvation and eternal life. We are not saved by our relationship with Him. We are saved by trusting, having faith, in what He did for us at the cross. I must believe and embrace the fact that the Lord died for my sins. In a sense, I place myself on the cross with Him, or to put it another way, I see Him taking my place under the wrath of God, for my sins. Now a baby Christian may not see all of the nuances in regard to salvation when he first believes. But as he goes forward in the Christian walk, it becomes more and more understandable as to what He did for the individual. This is why the doctrine of Assurance is important. John the apostle writes: "These things I have written to you who believe in the name of the Son of God, in order that you may know that you have eternal life" (1 John 5:13). We cannot figure everything out; that is why we need His Assurance that we are saved because of our simple faith in Him. Thanks for asking. Dr. Mal Couch (Feb., 10)

Unity of Christ and the Father while on the Cross

Dr. Couch, it seems the unity or immutability of God is destroyed by the so-called separation of Christ from the Father when He was on the cross. Most Bible teachers seem to just give the usual standard answer and do not work the biblical text on giving the right answer. I know you work the languages, so I'm asking you what the passage (Matt. 27:46) is really saying from the Hebrew and Greek languages. What do you think? ANSWER:  The passage reads, "My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?" Christ is quoting Psalm 22:1. The Hebrew word for "forsaken" in Psalm 22:1 is A'Zav with the meaning of "to abandon, to take away one's favor," with the idea: "To come up to someone, see a need, and walk away from that need." In Greek the word "forsake" is egkataleipo. It is in an Aorist form and carries the idea "to desert," to "leave one in straits, to leave one helpless, to leave one behind."    The persons in the Trinity did not cut ties when Christ died, and took upon Himself our sins, but the heavenly Father left the Son to face the pain of crucifixion, left Him in the circumstances of the death He was facing. The Father and Son were not breaking their Trinity relationship. They, along with the Holy Spirit, remained as joined as the three persons in the Godhead: Father, Son, and Spirit. They have an eternal relationship that cannot be broken.    The incarnation of Christ is a mystery and it is difficult to understand what happened in Christ's death on the cross. It cannot be said that God died, so His death is indeed difficult to explain! Some argue that only the physical of the Lord actually died. And even with that, we know that Christ did not undergo decay in His body. This is made clear from Psalm 22:10: "Neither will You allow Your Holy One to undergo decay." As deity the Lord did not "disappear." For He said prophetically "My flesh also will dwell securely. For You will not abandon My soul to Sheol [to the grave]" (vv. 9b-10a).    Psalm 22:11 seems to say that Christ, in His death, remained conscience just as we will when we pass. "In Your presence is fullness of joy; in Your right hand there are pleasures forever." In other words, the Lord remained in His relationship, with joy and comfort, with the heavenly Father when He physically died! A lot of this is a mystery but what I've written seems to make sense biblically.    Thanks for asking.    Dr. Mal Couch