Dr. Couch, did Christ go into hell following His crucifixion as it seems to imply in 1 Peter 3:19-20?
This is a tough passage with many different views, but I will give you my take on it from the Greek text.
Some believe by these verses that the Lord went to hell and preached
salvation, giving those who heard His message a second chance. The
“spirits” to whom He made proclamation had to be the lost because it
says they were “the spirits now in prison,” and that would not be
referring to the redeemed. The Lord is “making proclamation” only to
those who “once were disobedient, when the patience of God kept waiting
in the days of Noah, during the construction of the ark.” It would seem
that Christ was giving to them an explanation of all that happened. That
He would be giving them a second chance is not implied in the passage.
So this is an unusual happening that probably took place only once in
God’s dealing with lost humanity.
Some charismatics make a big deal about Christ going to hell to
somehow finish His redemptive work, in that He had to prove Himself (and
for Himself) triumphant over sin and death. This is also not implied in
this passage. And, in my opinion, that He went to the underworld
prison, does not negate the fact that He told the repentant thief on the
cross that he would be in Paradise with the Lord that day. The timing
of all of these events, we just have no information about.
The in which (to) in verse 19 can be a neuter article, thus
referring back to “spirit” in verse 18. The “spirit” here then should be
the Holy Spirit, and thus should be capitalized. By the work of the
Spirit, the Lord went to the “prison” of the lost who rejected the offer
of salvation before the Flood.
Putting all the points together I mentioned above makes sense to me.
Do not follow what I call “hysterical” interpretations that want to over
sensationalize such passages of Scripture and arrive at some crazy,
non-rational view! Fly the airplane straight and do not get off course!
Thanks for asking.
Dr. Mal Couch
